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Can someone give me an example of a uniformly integrable local martingale that is not a martingale? Or are all U.I. local martingales true martingales (continuous, of course).

Protawn
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1 Answers1

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It is not the case that all uniformly integrable local martingales are true martingales. In fact, it is not even true that $L^2$-bounded local martingales must be true martingales. Since a family of $L^p$-bounded random variable (for $p>1$) must be uniformly integrable it is sufficient to establish this second claim.

What follows is almost identical to my answer here.

Let $B_t$ be a standard Brownian motion in $\mathbb{R}^3$ and define $X_t = |B_t|^{-1}$ for $t \in (\varepsilon, \infty)$ where $0<\varepsilon<1$. Let $\mathcal{F}_t$ be the filtration generated by $B$.

We consider the process $Y_t = X_{1+t}$ and the filtration $\mathcal{G}_t = \mathcal{F}_{1+t}$. We have that $Y_t$ is adapted to $\mathcal{G}_t$ and by Ito's formula that $Y$ is a continuous local martingale since $x \mapsto |x|^{-1}$ is harmonic away from $0$ and $B$ doesn't visit $0$.

An explicit calculation gives that $\mathbb{E}[X_t^2] = t^{-1}$ so that $Y$ is $L^2$-bounded. In particular, as I noted earlier, this implies that $Y$ is a uniformly integrable continuous local martingale.

However, since Brownian motion is transient in dimension $3$, $Y_t \to 0$ almost surely as $t \to \infty$. Since $Y$ is uniformly integrable, if $Y$ were a true martingale we would have $Y_t = \mathbb{E}[Y_\infty \mid \mathcal{G}_t] = 0$ almost surely and it is clear this is not the case, so $Y$ is not a martingale.

Rhys Steele
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  • Could you clarify a few points of your answer? Firstly, why doesn't $B$ visit 0. Second, which stopping times can be used to prove that $Y$ is a local martingale. – Riemann Mar 23 '25 at 02:31
  • The first question is about is a standard fact about Brownian motion in dimension $d \ge 2$. It essentially says that points are polar sets for Brownian motion in these dimensions. You could look at e.g. section 7.4 in "Brownian Motion, Martingales, and Stochastic Calculus" by Le Gall. For the second question, the proof I suggest here is not to try to explicitly build a sequence of stopping times by hand. Instead you should use the fact that in the application of Ito's formula the finite variation part vanishes by harmonicity of $|x|^{-1}$ so that the result must be a local martingale. – Rhys Steele Mar 23 '25 at 12:10
  • On the right hand side of Ito's formula (which is an integral formula, the differential notation is just a shorthand) you have two terms. One is the Ito integral against a local martingale which is then a local martingale. This is a standard property of Ito integration (or even part of the definition depending on the construction of the stochastic integral you're following). The remaining term is an integral against the quadratic variation of the process. My claim is that this second part is actually 0 in this case so that only the part that is a local martingale contributes. – Rhys Steele Mar 23 '25 at 19:49
  • Now I get it, thanks! I missed that the Brownian Motion was in more dimensions, and I didn't know that finite variation is a synonym for drift. – Riemann Mar 24 '25 at 00:56
  • How to prove this standard property of Ito integration? It is not in the lecture notes of my course. The wikipedia page of local martingale states that driftless diffusion processes are local martingales, but it doesn't cite a source. – Riemann Mar 24 '25 at 01:40
  • See this question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/5049035/why-are-driftless-diffusion-processes-local-martingales – Riemann Mar 24 '25 at 02:16