Here is a really nice video that shows the following:
Suppose we have a subset of $\mathbb{C}\cup \{\infty\}$. Then we can project it onto the 2-sphere via the inverse stereographic projection. If we rotate or translate the sphere in the surrounding $\mathbb{R}^3$ and apply the stereographic projection again, then the result amounts to a Möbius transformation of the initial subset. Here is a screenshot to illustrate this:
Furthermore, on this wiki-page on conformal maps, the 4th paragraph of the subsection "Complex analysis" says that "A map of the extended complex plane (which is conformally equivalent to a sphere) onto itself is conformal if and only if it is a Möbius transformation."
Now this seems quite interesting to me because it seems to imply that if I take a subset of $\mathbb{R}^2$ and apply a conformal transformation $\Phi$ to it, then I can always write it as \begin{equation} \Phi = P\circ \phi\circ P^{-1} \end{equation} where $P$ is the stereographic projection and $\phi$ is a rotation and/or translation of the sphere in 3-space.
My first question is: Is that right?
My second question concerns whether this generalises to higher dimensions. I saw the wiki page on Liouville's theorem which states that every conformal mapping in $\mathbb{R}^n$, $n\ge 3$ is a Möbius transformation. However, I am not sure if a Möbius transformation in higher dimensions still has the same intuitive meaning as in 2 dimensions.
