Let $X,Y$ be metric spaces and $(f_n)_n$ a family of functions $X \rightarrow Y$.
We say that $(f_n)_n$ is equicontinuous if $\forall x\in X \quad \forall \varepsilon >0 \quad \exists \delta >0 \quad | \quad \forall n \quad \forall y\in X \quad (d(x,y)< \delta \implies d(f_n(x),f_n(y)) < \varepsilon)$.
I would like to know whether this along with uniform continuity of each $f_n$ impies that $(f_n)_n$ is uniformly equicontinuous, that is : $\forall \varepsilon >0 \quad \exists \delta >0 \quad | \quad \forall n \quad \forall x,y\in X \quad (d(x,y)< \delta \implies d(f_n(x),f_n(y)) < \varepsilon)$.
I can see absolutely no reason why it should, but since I know that equicontinuity and uniform equicontinuity are equivalent when $X$ is compact, I was wondering whether the underlying reason was that when $X$ is compact each continuous $f_n$ is uniformly so.