I am looking at the stopping theorem in my script:
Let $(X_n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ be a martingale and let $T$ be a stopping time. Then $(X_{\min(n,T)})_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is also a martingale. In particular if $T$ is bounded, then $X_T\in L^1$ and we have that $\mathbb{E}(X_T) = \mathbb{E}(X_0)$.
Then after this there is an example that aims to point out that the hypothesis that $T$ is bounded is crucial. They consider the random walk $X_n = Y_1+\cdots+Y_n$ starting at zero with $Y$'s having the Rademacher distribution (which is a martingale). Now if $T = \inf\{n\geq0:X_n=1\}<\infty$ then we would have $1=\mathbb{E}(X_T)\neq\mathbb{E}(X_0)=0$. But $T$ is not bounded and hence there is no contradiction with the theorem.
My question: How does one see that $T=\inf\{n\geq0:X_n=1\}$ is not bounded?