Consider two independent linear Brownian motions $B'=(B'_t)_{t\geqslant0}$ and $B''=(B''_t)_{t\geqslant0}$, starting from $B'_0=B''_0=0$, and the process $X=(X_t)_{t\geqslant0}$ defined by $$X_t=\max\{B'_t,B''_t\}$$
What is known about the distribution of the process $X$?
The question is admittedly a little vague, hence we present a few remarks to help narrow it.
1. For each positive $t$, the PDF $f_t$ of $X_t$ is $$f_t(x)=2\varphi_t(x)\Phi_t(x)$$ where $\varphi_t$ and $\Phi_t$ are the centered normal PDF and CDF with variance $t$. Equivalently, $$f_t(x)=\frac2{\sqrt{t}}\varphi\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{t}}\right)\Phi\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{t}}\right)$$ where $\varphi$ and $\Phi$ are the standard normal PDF and CDF. In particular, $X$ is not a Brownian motion.
2. The process $X$ is a submartingale.
To show this in an elementary way, introduce the notations $B=(B',B'')$, and $\mathcal F^Y_t=\sigma(Y_s;s\leqslant t)$ for every time $t$ and every process $Y=(Y_t)_{t\geqslant0}$. Then, $X_t\geqslant B'_t$ almost surely hence, for every fixed $s<t$, $$E(X_t\mid \mathcal F^B_s)\geqslant E(B'_t\mid \mathcal F^B_s)=E(B'_t\mid \mathcal F^{B'}_s)=B'_s$$ By symmetry, $E(X_t\mid \mathcal F^B_s)\geqslant B''_s$ hence $E(X_t\mid \mathcal F^B_s)\geqslant X_s$. Finally, $\mathcal F^X_s\subseteq\mathcal F^B_s$ hence $$E(X_t\mid \mathcal F^X_s)=E(E(X_t\mid \mathcal F^B_s)\mid\mathcal F^X_s)\geqslant X_s$$ as desired.
3. The process $X$ is recurrent, in the sense that, for every $s$, almost surely, $$\sup_{t\geqslant s}X_t=+\infty\qquad\inf_{t\geqslant s}X_t=-\infty$$ Note that this implies that, for every nonnegative time $s$ and real number $x$, the sets of times $\{t\geqslant s\mid X_t=x\}$, $\{t\geqslant s\mid X_t\geqslant x\}$ and $\{t\geqslant s\mid X_t\leqslant x\}$ are all almost surely unbounded.
4. The process $X$ is (most probably) not Markov.
We did not write a full proof of this but the idea is that considering a (many-to-one) functional of a Markov process (these are often called hidden Markov models) usually destroys the Markov property. But one should beware that counterexamples exist, for example, $|B'|$ is Markov...
So, to begin with a precise question:
What would be a simple argument that $X$ is not a Markov process?