6

Let $\mathcal B$ be a Hamel basis for $\mathbb R$ over $\mathbb Q$. Then is it true that for every $0\ne a \in \mathbb R , \exists y \in \mathcal B$ such that $\dfrac a y \notin \mathcal B$ ?

If the answer to the above in general is no then can we take $a$ to be $1$, that is,

Does there exist a Hamel basis $\mathcal B$ for $\mathbb R$ over $\mathbb Q$ such that $a\in \mathcal B \implies \dfrac 1a \in \mathcal B$ ?

See

Hamel basis for $\mathbb{R}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ cannot be closed under scalar multiplication by $a \ne 0,1$

  • Here is a related attempt. If $F$ is a field extension of a field $K$ such that $[F:K]$ is an odd integer $2k+1$, then there exists a Hamel basis $B$ of $F$ over $K$ such that $B$ is invariant under inversion. To see this, suppose $F=K[x]/\big(f(x)\big)$ for some irreducible polynomial $f(x)\in K[x]$ which exists and has degree $2k+1$. Let $\bar{x}$ be the associated image of $x$ in $F$. Then, take $B$ to be $\left{ \bar{x}^{-k},\bar{x}^{-(k-1)},\ldots,\bar{x}^{+(k-1)},\bar{x}^{+k}\right}$. It can be easily seen that, if $[F:K]$ is even, then such a Hamel basis $B$ does not exist. – Batominovski Aug 13 '16 at 00:42
  • I retract my claim when $[F:K]$ is even. There are counterexamples. – Batominovski Aug 13 '16 at 01:05
  • 3
    I think this is an interesting question. To users of MSE, please reconsider closing votes while there is someone trying hard to solve this question. – Sungjin Kim Aug 13 '16 at 17:07
  • Closing this topic makes less sense than the other controversial one by the same OP. This problem is much harder (than the original question by the OP in the other topic). It is totally understandable that the OP has made no progress. – Batominovski Aug 13 '16 at 19:48
  • 1
    Anyhow, I have proven that any field extension $F$ of $K$ of a finite index has a Hamel basis over $K$ that is invariant under inversion. I don't know whether the same can be said about field extensions of infinite indices. A proof is in the said controversial topic: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1890317/does-there-exist-a-hamel-basis-mathcal-b-for-mathbb-r-over-mathbb-q-suc?noredirect=1&lq=1. Nonetheless, it seems (to me) to be the case that the transcendental extension $K(x)$ of $K$ does not possess such a Hamel basis. – Batominovski Aug 13 '16 at 19:51
  • 1
    Since you proved the case with any finite extension, the same can be said about infinite algebraic extensions, e. g. algebraic closure. – Sungjin Kim Aug 13 '16 at 20:05
  • 1
    @i707107 Good point. If it is the case (although I don't believe that it's true, but I may be wrong) that every simple transcendental extension $K(x)$ of a field $K$ has such a basis, then every field extension $F$ of $K$ has an inversion-invariant, or involutive, basis. – Batominovski Aug 13 '16 at 20:39
  • 2
    I strongly disagree with the votes to close. – Noah Schweber Aug 14 '16 at 00:31
  • @NoahSchweber Given that (after checking just now) 7 of the 10 OP's recent questions are problem statements, or problem statements with "I only know ", it is not too surprising. The other 3 have a little context. Interesting question or not, the pattern is not going unnoticed :s – rschwieb Aug 16 '16 at 16:57

2 Answers2

5

The answer to Question $2$ is yes, such a basis exists (and hence the answer to Question $1$ is "no") - assuming the continuum hypothesis. Here is an outline.

We want to build a Hamel basis $B$ satisfying $x\in B\rightarrow {1\over x}\in B$. This means we have to meet a family of requirements. Let $\mathbb{R}=\{r_\alpha: \alpha<\mathfrak{c}\}$.

  • $I$: $B$ is linearly independent.

  • $D$: $x\in B\rightarrow {1\over x}\in B$.

  • $S_\alpha$: $r_\alpha\in span(B)$.

Say that a set $X\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ satisfying $I$ and $D$, with size $<\mathfrak{c}$, is a good set.

The transfinite construction of a basis satisfying the above requirements is then provided by the following lemma:

Lemma: if $X$ is good and $r$ is a real, there is some good set $Y\supseteq X$ with $r\in span(Y)$.

Proof of lemma. Baire category theorem. Suppose WLOG that $r\not\in span(X)$. For a real $s$, let $Y_s=X\cup\{s, {1\over s}, s+r, {1\over s+r}\}$. Clearly $r\in span(Y_s)$ and the only way $Y_s$ can be non-good is if $Y_s$ is linearly dependent.

Now, for each "appropriate sequence of scalars" $\sigma$ (that is, $\sigma: X\sqcup 4\rightarrow \mathbb{Q}$ with finite support), let $C_\sigma$ be the set of $s$ such that $\sigma$ witnesses that $Y_s$ is linearly dependent. By CH, we have that $X$ is countable, and hence there are only countably many such $\sigma$. The crucial observation is:

Exercise: since $r\not\in span(X)$, each $C_\sigma$ is nowhere dense.

By the Baire category theorem, we have an $s\not\in \bigcup C_\sigma$. But then $Y_s$ is good.

Note: we can of course weaken CH here to Martin's Axiom MA. However, I don't see how to make this argument work in ZFC alone.


Without the continuum hypothesis (or Martin's Axiom), things get very messy. I don't see how to fix the construction above to work in just ZFC.

However, I still see no good reason why the answer to question $2$ shouldn't be "yes" in ZFC alone. In particular, it's nontrivial to even show that some Hamel basis has the property that for every nonzero $a$, some element $b$ has ${a\over b}\not\in B$! Below is a ZFC-construction of such a Hamel basis.

Order the nonzero reals as $\{r_\alpha: \alpha<\mathfrak{c}\}$. We build a Hamel basis $B$ meeting the following requirements:

  • $H$: $B$ is linearly independent.

  • $S_\alpha$: $r_\alpha$ is in the span of $B$.

  • $D_\alpha$: if $r_\alpha\not=0$, then there is some $s\in B$ such that ${r_\alpha\over s}\not\in B$.

Note that the $S_\alpha$s are satisfied by putting elements into $B$, while the $D_\alpha$s and $H$ are satisfied by keeping elements out of $B$. That is, $S_\alpha$s are positive requirements, and $D_\alpha$s and $H$ are negative requirements.

The crucial lemmas are the following:

Lemma 1. If $X\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ is linearly independent and has size $<\vert\mathbb{R}\vert$, and $r\in\mathbb{R}$ is arbitrary, then there is a finite $F\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ such that $F\cap X=\emptyset$, $r\in span(F)$, and $F\cup X$ is linearly independent.

Proof: First, let's ignore the linear independence part. Consider $Z=\{\{x, x+r\}: x\in\mathbb{R}\}$. There is a continuum-sized, pairwise-disjoint subset $Z'$ of $Z$ (restrict to $x\in (0, {r\over 2})$). Since $\vert X\vert<\vert\mathbb{R}\vert$, we have that there is some $P\in Z'$ such that $P\cap X=\emptyset$. To fold in linear dependence, suppose $r$ is not already in $span(X)$ (otherwise we're done). Suppose towards contradiction that any $P\in Z'$ which we add to $X$ breaks linear independence. Using pigeonhole (there are only countably many finite sequences of scalars), we have $P, Q\in Z'$ with the above property but with $P\cap Q=\emptyset$ and $X\cup P, X\cup Q$ linearly independent via the same sequence of scalars. But this immediately implies that the coefficients of the elements of $P$ and $Q$ are zero, since $r\not\in span(X)$, so $X$ is linearly dependent; contradiction.

Lemma 2. If $X, Y\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ each have size $<\mathfrak{c}$, $X$ is linearly independent, and $r\in\mathbb{R}$, then there is some $s\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $s\not\in Y$, ${r\over s}\not\in X$, and $X\cup\{s\}$ is linearly independent.

Proof: Similar to Lemma 1.

${}{}{}{}$

Now the process is to build $B$ in stages, meeting the $S_\alpha$s and $D_\alpha$s in order.

Specifically: the $\alpha$th stage in our construction will be a pair $(B_\alpha, O_\alpha)$ such that

  • $B_\alpha, O_\alpha\subseteq\mathbb{R}$;

  • $B_\alpha$ is linearly independent;

  • $B_\alpha\cap O_\alpha=\emptyset$; and

  • $\vert B_\alpha\vert, \vert O_\alpha\vert<\mathfrak{c}$.

We will also have $B_\alpha\subseteq B_\beta$ and $O_\alpha\subseteq O_\beta$ for $\alpha<\beta<\mathfrak{c}$.

We begin with $B_0=O_0=\emptyset$, and let $B_\lambda=\bigcup_{\beta<\lambda} B_\beta$ and $O_\lambda=\bigcup_{\beta<\lambda} O_\beta$ for $\lambda$ limit.

Finally, given $(B_\alpha, O_\alpha)$, we define $(B_{\alpha+1}, O_{\alpha+1})$ as follows:

  • First, let $C\supseteq B_\alpha$ have cardinality $<\mathfrak{c}$ such that $C\cap O_\alpha=\emptyset$ and $r_\alpha\in span(C)$, and $C$ is linearly independent. Such a $C$ exists by Lemma 1 (indeed we can have $C$ consist of $B_\alpha$ plus at most two elements).

  • Next, pick some $s$ such that $s\not\in O_\alpha$, ${r_\alpha\over s}\not\in B_\alpha$, and $C\cup\{s\}$ is linearly independent; such an $s$ exists by Lemma 2.

  • Finally, we let $B_{\alpha+1}=C\cup\{s\}$ and $O_{\alpha+1}=O_\alpha\cup\{{r_\alpha\over s}\}$.

Now let $B=\bigcup_{\alpha<\mathfrak{c}} B_\alpha$. By induction, each requirement $H$, $S_\alpha$ and $D_\alpha$ is satisfied, so $B$ is a Hamel basis with the property mentioned in the first part of the question.

Noah Schweber
  • 260,658
  • There are some confusing points: First, it seems to me that $B$ is not yet defined to say about $X$ being good or not. Second, $C_{\sigma}$ seems to depend on $s$, but you are choosing $s \notin \cup C_{\sigma}$. Would you please explain these two points? – Sungjin Kim Aug 14 '16 at 07:07
  • Also, why $Y_s$ has to include those four elements ${s, s^{-1}, s+r, (s+r)^{-1}}$? Finally, how can we solve the exercise? – Sungjin Kim Aug 14 '16 at 07:10
  • @i707107 I don't understand your sentence "First, it seems . . . " I think you might have left out some words. Re: $C_\sigma$ and $s$, there's no conflict. Think about the following linguistically-identical definition: "For $t\in\mathbb{R}$, let $X_t$ be the set of $s$ such that $s>\vert t\vert$. Then there is some $s$ which is not in any $X_t$ - namely, $s=-1$." Basically, $s$ is being used as a variable in the first clause. – Noah Schweber Aug 14 '16 at 15:42
  • Re: $Y_s$, well first I need $r$ to be in the span of $Y_s$ - the easiest way to do this is to just put $s$ and $s+r$ into $Y_s$. Now, I also need $Y_s$ to be closed under $x\mapsto {1\over x}$ - so I need ${1\over s}$ and ${1\over r+s}$ to be in $Y_s$ as well, based on my previous sentence. – Noah Schweber Aug 14 '16 at 15:43
  • $X$ is good means elements of $X$ satisfying $I$ and $D$ with size $<\mathfrak{c}$? – Sungjin Kim Aug 14 '16 at 15:55
  • $\mathbb{Q}$ with finite support would mean $\mathbb{Q}^{<\omega}$, right? – Sungjin Kim Aug 14 '16 at 16:02
  • @i707107 Yes, that's what good means. $B$ is then constructed (via the lemma) by a transfinite recursion argument: start with $\emptyset$, take unions at limit ordinals, and at stage $\alpha+1$ use the lemma to extend to a larger good set with $r_\alpha$ in its span. Re: finite support, no - the function $\sigma$ has finite support, in that it maps all but finitely many elements of $X\sqcup 4$ to $0$. That is, $\sigma$ represents a linear combination "pattern" for $X$ and four more elements. – Noah Schweber Aug 14 '16 at 16:14
  • About the exercise, I think we have at most four $s$ satisfying the linear relationship provided by $\sigma$. Then $C_{\sigma}$ is clearly nowhere dense. – Sungjin Kim Aug 14 '16 at 16:58
  • Would you check my proof of Lemma1 (I think the conclusion is $r\in\mathrm{span}(F\cup X)$ though) : If $r\in\mathrm{span}(X)$, then we are done. If not, let $F={r}$. – Sungjin Kim Aug 14 '16 at 17:43
4

In fact, Noah Schweber's idea leads to a solution under ZFC.

First, let $\mathfrak{c}$ be the least ordinal with the same cardinality as $\mathbb{R}$. Order nonzero reals $\{r_{\alpha}:\alpha<\mathfrak{c}\}$ (possible due to the Axiom of Choice). We try transfinite recursion. See also ordinal numbers. We will say that an extension field $F$ over $K$ is involutive if there exists a basis $\mathcal{B}$ of $F$ over $K$ such that $\alpha\in\mathcal{B}$ implies $\frac1{\alpha}\in\mathcal{B}$.

Base case Set $\mathcal{B}_0 = \emptyset$.

Successor case Let $\alpha<\mathfrak{c}$.

If $r_{\alpha}\in\mathrm{span}(\mathcal{B}_{\alpha})$, let $\mathcal{B}_{\alpha+1}=\mathcal{B}_{\alpha}$.

If $r_{\alpha}\notin\mathrm{span}(\mathcal{B}_{\alpha})$, consider $$ Y_s=\mathcal{B}_{\alpha}\cup \left\{ s, \frac1s, s+r_{\alpha}, \frac1{s+r_{\alpha}}\right\}. $$ Suppose that $Y_s$ is linearly dependent over $\mathbb{Q}$ and this is observed by $\sigma\in\mathcal{B}_{\alpha}^{<\omega}\times\mathbb{Q}^{<\omega}$. Since $r_{\alpha}\notin\mathrm{span}(\mathcal{B}_{\alpha})$, the $\mathbb{Q}$-linear relation provided by $\sigma$ forces $s$ in a set $C_{\sigma}$ of at most four elements.

By choosing $s\notin \cup_{\sigma} C_{\sigma}$, we can guarantee that $Y_s$ is linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$. This is possible since $$ |\cup_{\sigma}C_{\sigma}|\leq |4\times\mathcal{B}_{\alpha}^{<\omega}\times\mathbb{Q}^{<\omega}|=\max(\aleph_0, |\alpha|)<\mathfrak{c}. $$ Then let $\mathcal{B}_{\alpha+1}=Y_s$.

Limit case For limit ordinals $\lambda$, define $\mathcal{B}_{\lambda}=\cup_{\alpha<\lambda} \mathcal{B}_{\alpha}$.

This process must terminate at some ordinal $\beta$, where all $r_{\alpha}$ belongs to $\mathrm{span}(\mathcal{B}_{\beta})$.

By the construction, $\mathcal{B}_{\beta}$ is linearly independent over $\mathbb{Q}$ and involutive basis for $\mathbb{R}$ over $\mathbb{Q}$.

Sungjin Kim
  • 20,850