Today, in class, my algebra professor stated this particular general result.
Theorem. Let $R$ be a ring of order $pq$ where $p,q$ are two primes with $p\gt q$ and $q\not\mid (p-1)$. Then, $R$ is a commutative ring.
My question is:
- Do we require the condition $q\not\mid (p-1)$ ?
Here's a proof attempt where we don't consider the above condition:
Proof.
Since $(R,+,.)$ is a ring, we know that $(R,+)$ is an abelian group.
Now, since $p,q$ are primes and $(R,+)$ is a group, we know by Cauchy's theorem that there exists two elements $a,b\in R$ such that $|a|=p$ and $|b|=q$. Now, since $p\gt q$, we know that they are distinct primes and hence $\gcd(p,q)=1$. So, we have,
$$|a+b|=|a||b|=pq=|R|\implies (R,+)=\langle a+b\rangle$$
Denote $a+b$ by $g$. Then, since $(R,+)$ is cyclic, we have,
$$\forall x,y\in R~\exists m,n\in\Bbb Z\mid x=mg~,~y=ng\\~\\ xy=(mg)(ng)=mn(gg)=nm(gg)=(ng)(mg)=yx$$
using the distributive laws.
Hence, $(R,+,.)$ is a commutative ring.
So, does my proof work and the additional condition is not required? Or is there any error in my thinking?