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Let R be a ring. Prove that if $x^2=x$ for each $x \in R$, then R is a commutative ring.

Ok, so I'm just looking for some confirmation that I'm doing this correctly.

If we suppose $x,y \in R$ Let's consider $(x+y)^2$,

Then $(x+y)^2 = x^2+xy+yx+y^2$ but $x^2=x$ and $y^2=y$

We can also see that for all $x \in R, x=-x$

So, $(x+y)^2= x+xy+yx+y$

Also, by our given $(x+y)^2=(x+y)$ so

$x+y =x+xy+yx+y$, Solving this algebraicly gives us $-yx=xy$ but since $(-yx)^2=(yx)$,

We have, $yx=xy$, Therefore R is commutative. Does that about wrap it up?

cele
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1 Answers1

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As stated in the comments, your proof is correct.

However, It would make the proof more readable if you could more thoroughly explain steps following the equality $-yx = xy$.

Alternatively, it might be easier to explicitly state that $x = -x$ for all $x \in R$, as MooS explains.

Ben Grossmann
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