A while ago I asked:
Evaluation of $\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x)/(x^2+1)$ using complex analysis.
Instead of using $\cos(z)$ an answerer said that is valid to use $e^{ix}$
How is this valid? I dont understand that.
A while ago I asked:
Evaluation of $\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x)/(x^2+1)$ using complex analysis.
Instead of using $\cos(z)$ an answerer said that is valid to use $e^{ix}$
How is this valid? I dont understand that.
$\cos z = \Re(e^{iz})$ and $\Re$ is a linear operator, so $\Re\int = \int\Re$.
$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\cos(z)}{z^2 + 1} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\text{Re}e^{iz}}{z^2 + 1} = \text{Re}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2 + 1}$
So if the answer is for example, $2i$ we take Re[$2i$] = 0?
just as an example, not that that is the actual value of the integral?
– Amad27 Dec 22 '14 at 15:46