Is it true / is there any way to prove that, for a given $A\in \mathbb{N}$, and $N\in \mathbb{N}, N >2$ ($N=2014$ in my example) there is at most one solution for $0\leq a_1\leq a_2 \leq \dots \leq a_N$, all in $\in \mathbb{Z}_+$ (positive integers or $0$, they do not have to be pairwise different) such that that
$$A^N=\sum_{i=1}^N a_i^N$$
If there are any conditions on $A$ and $N$ so that the solution is non-existent or unique, I would be interested to know them.
N.B. This is a follow-up on question 965318