I've got some doubts proving that $$H^1_0((a,b))=\{u\in AC([a,b]): u'\in L^2 \text{ and } u(a)=u(b)=0\}:=X.$$Let $$\mathcal A=\{v\in C^2([a,b]):v(a)=v(b)=0\}.$$
- $H^1_0((a,b))\subseteq X.$
Let $u\in H^1_0(a,b)$. We want to use the Fundamental theorem of calculus for Lebesgue's integral to prove that $u\in X$.
Since $u\in H^1_0(a,b)$, $u\in L^2$ and there exists a sequence $(u_h)_h\subset \mathcal A$ and a function $w\in L^2(a,b)$ such that:
- $u_h\rightarrow u$ in $L^2$;
- $u'_h\rightarrow w$ in $L^2$.
Now we know that $$ (*)\qquad u_h(x)=u_h(x)-u_h(a)=\int_a^x u'_h(t)dt, \text{ for each } x\in [a,b], h\in \Bbb N,$$ and we want to infer that $$ (**) \qquad u(x)=\int_a^x w(t)dt.$$
My problems start here. I think we should pass to the limit for $h\rightarrow \infty$ in $(*)$, using 1., 2. and Lebesgue's dominated convergence theorem. I can't justify precisely why $(**)$ holds.
Concerning the application of Lebesgue's dominated convergence theorem, we only know that a subsequence of $u'_h$ pointwise converges to $w$, let's say $({u'_h}_k)_k$. We have to show that there exists $g\in L^1$ such that $|{u'_h}_k (x)|\leq |g(x)|$ for each $x\in[a,b],$ for each $k\in \Bbb N$. But who is this $g$?
If we had $g$, then $$\int_a^x {u'_h}_k(t)dt\rightarrow \int_a^x w(t)dt.$$
On the other hand, if $\lim_{k\to \infty} {u_h}_k (x)=u(x)$ (for the same $k$) we would have finished, but I'm not sure that $\lim_{k\to \infty} {u_h}_k (x)=u(x)$ is true.
Can someone help me, please? Any suggestion would be very appreciated.