I know $\sin x$ is uniformly continuous and it was asked before (Prove $\sin x$ is uniformly continuous on $\mathbb R$). My question is related to this answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/219463/105885.
Uniform continuity of $\sin x$, if we'll take $x=\pi x +\frac {\pi} 2$ and $y=\pi x$, then $|x-y|={\pi \over 2}$ but similaly to the linked answer: $|f(x)-f(y)| = |1|\ge\epsilon = 1$.
Edit: With an arbitrarily small delta: $x=\pi n +\frac 1 n, \ y=\pi n$ then $|x-y|=\frac 1 n$ So delta can be arbitrarily small, $|f(x)−f(y)|=|\sin(\frac 1 n)|$ which for an infinite amount of $n$ can be $|\sin(\frac 1 n)|≥\frac 1 2$ (Since the function furiously alternate between $1$ and $-1$ as $n\to 0$).
Why this is wrong in showing that $\sin x$ isn't uniformly continuous?