In my book it says that if $d$ is an element in a principal ideal domain $D$ that cannot be written as a product of irreducible elements then it follows that $d$ is not irreducible. I dont understand this, im thinking that IF it is irreducible THEN it cannot be written as a product of irreducible elements...Am I missing something?
Claim: Any principal ideal domain is a UFD
Proof: "Let $D$ be a principal ideal domain and let $d$ be a nonzero element of $D$ that is not a unit. Suppose that $d$ cannot be written as a product of irreducible element. Then $d$ is not irreducible, and so $d = a_1b_1$, where neither $a_1$ nor $b_1$ is a unit and either $a_1$ or $b_1$ cannot be written as a product of irreducible elements. Assume that $a_1$ cannot be written as a product of irreducible element. Now $b_1$ is not a unit, and so we have $dD \subset a_1D$. We can continue this argument to obtain a factor $a_2$ of $a_1$ that cannot be written as a product of irreducible elements such that $a_1D \subset a_2D$. Thus the assumption that $d$ cannot be written as a product of irreducible elements allows us to construct a strictly ascending chain of ideals $dD \subset a_1D \subset a_2D \subset a_3D \subset.....$" (according to the last lemma, this chain contradicts the fact that $D$ is a principal ideal domain)
This is half the proof, namely they proved the first condition for an integral domain to be a UFD, however there are several parts i dont understand, like the one i pointed out in the beginning of the post. Can anyone explain this proof to me?