Let $F$ be a field and let $I = \{f(x) \in F[x]\mid f(a) = 0 ~~ \forall a \in F\}$. Prove that $I = \{0\}$ when $F$ is infinite.
I have already shown that $I$ is an ideal and that $I$ is infinite when $F$ is finite. I have also found a monic polynomial to generate $I$ when $F$ is finite.
As to this part of the question, it appears to me that we should investigate what happens if there is a non-zero polynomial, $g(x) \in I$. Well, $\deg(g(x)) = n$ where $n$ is a natural number. Then, we know $g(x)$ has at most $n$ zeros. My intuition tells me this is impossible--that we need it to have infinitely many zeros--but I don't have the theory to support that idea. Help would be appreciated.