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Prove or find a counterexample: The product of any three consecutive natural numbers is divisible by 6.

Answer

Let n=1, Since xeN is arbitrary p(N) holds for all xeN.

(n).(n+1).(n+2),

(1).(1+1).(1+2)= 6

Thus,6|6

KRISSH
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  • I don't understand what you're asking; are you having trouble understanding the argument made in your post, or are you checking the argument? –  Apr 10 '14 at 21:56

2 Answers2

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Since every other number is even, at least one (or two) of the three numbers $$n,n+1,n+2$$ will be even. Since every third number is divisible by three, exactly one of $$n,n+1,n+2$$ will have a factor of three. So in $$n\times (n+1)\times (n+2)$$ there will be at least one factor of two and exactly one factor of three, meaning it will be divisible by $$3\times 2=6$$

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Hint: A number $x$ is divisible by $6 \iff x$ is divisible by both $2$ and $3$.

Given any $3$ consecutive integers $n$, $ \ n\!+\!1$, $ \ n \! + \! 2$, at least one will be divisible by $2$ and exactly one will be divisible by $3$. So why will their product be divisible by $6$?

Kaj Hansen
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