Show $$\lim\limits_{n\to\infty} \int_{0}^{1} f(x^n)dx = f(0)$$ when $f$ is continuous on $[0,1]$.
I know it can be proved using the bounded convergence theorem but I want to know a proof using only basic properties of the Riemann integral, the fundamental theorem of calculus, and the mean value theorem for integrals. Thank you.