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Let $$A=\begin{pmatrix}i & 0\\ 0 & -i\end{pmatrix}$$ and

$$B=\begin{pmatrix}0 & 1\\ -1 & 0\end{pmatrix}.$$

Let $Q=\langle A,B\rangle.$

Prove that Q has an automorphism of order 3.

ZZS14
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  • Not much really, the definition I have of automorphism I find vague. An isomorphism with G = G∗ is said to be an automorphism of G . – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 09:28
  • what definition do you have? –  Oct 31 '13 at 09:29
  • basic thing you should do is to find orders of $A$ and $B$ –  Oct 31 '13 at 09:30
  • I have done that. Sorry, the orders are both 4. – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 09:31
  • Do you realize the relation betwen power of $A$ and power of $B$ –  Oct 31 '13 at 09:36
  • I dont think so no. – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 09:38
  • ok.. please write all powers of $A$ and all powers of $B$ then you can see some relation between their powers... –  Oct 31 '13 at 09:39
  • oh, do you mean A^2=B^2? – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 09:40
  • And what about $AB$, $BA$, $(AB)^2$? – Daniel Fischer Oct 31 '13 at 09:42
  • AB=-BA and (AB)^2= -e – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 09:46
  • Sorry to make you work unnecessarily.. I guess you could now realize your $Q$ to be the quaternion group and please have a look at http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/195932/automorphism-group-of-the-quaternion-group and so $Aut(Q_8)\cong S_4$ and as $S-4$ have an element of order $3$ so is the automorphism group... So you are done if you understand the sited link.. In the meanwhile i would try to make it less complicated (if you don't understand the link there) –  Oct 31 '13 at 10:01
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    I don't really understand what the link is saying, sorry – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 10:09

2 Answers2

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As Praphulla Koushik has noted in another answer, the key is to recognize this as the quaternion group: ignoring the usual convention that $I$ denotes the identity matrix and instead calling the identity '$\mathbb{1}$', and changing our variable names from $A$ and $B$ to the suggestive $I$ and $J$, we have $I^2 = \begin{pmatrix}-1 & 0\\ 0 & -1\end{pmatrix} = -\mathbb{1}$, where of course $(-\mathbb{1})^2=\mathbb{1}$; likewise $J^2 = -\mathbb{1}$. And if we define the matrix $K$ by $K=IJ=\begin{pmatrix}0 & i\\ i & 0\end{pmatrix}$, then we also have $K^2=-\mathbb{1}$; in other words, the three matrices $I, J, K$ satisfy the relations $I^2=J^2=K^2=IJK=-\mathbb{1}$. (Note that the last one derives trivially by expanding one instance of $K=IJ$ in $K^2=-\mathbb{1}$). Furthermore, we have $JKI=-\mathbb{1}$ and $KIJ=-\mathbb{1}$ (you can prove the last two by algebraic manipulations using the relations you already have, without doing any matrix arithmetic; this is a good exercise). A complete list of all the elements in the matrix group would be $\mathbb{1}, -\mathbb{1}, I, J, K, -I, -J, -K$ (where e.g. $-I$ is $-\mathbb{1}\cdot I$) — prove this!

Now, you should see a certain symmetry in the relations among $I, J, K$ that were written above; you should be able to exploit this symmetry to find a morphism $\eta$ by picking suitable 'target' matrices for $\eta(I)$, $\eta(J)$ and $\eta(K)$ and then showing that all of the relations are invariant under application of the morphism $\eta$.

  • I have as far as Q={1, A, -A, B, -B, AB, -AB} which is equivalent to what you have, but I am having trouble seeing the symmetry and progressing further than here. Thank you. – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 18:56
  • @Emily Try rewriting 'AB' as 'C' - having three distinct generators (with a relation between them) is much easier here than thinking in terms of two. A big hint: what differentiates 'A' from 'B' (or in my formulation, 'I' from 'J') in the generating relations? – Steven Stadnicki Oct 31 '13 at 19:11
  • when you say differentiates A from B, what do you mean? All I can see is that A^2=B^2=-1? – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 21:42
  • @Emily That's exactly it (and don't forget the 'ABC=-1' relation); there's no difference whatsoever between A and B, inherently. You can't just swap A and B (i.e., via a morphism $\eta$ with $\eta(A)=B, \eta(B)=A, \eta(C)=C$) because (a) that would be order 2, rather than order (3), and (b) the relation $ABC=-1$ isn't invariant; you get $\eta(ABC) = \eta(A)\eta(B)\eta(C) = BAC = 1\neq \eta(-1)$. But consider setting $\eta(A)=B, \eta(B)=C, \eta(C)=A$... – Steven Stadnicki Oct 31 '13 at 22:14
  • If I have n(A)=B, n(B)=C, n(C)=A, n(ABC)=n(A)n(B)n(C)=BCA= 1 or have I done something wrong – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 22:41
  • @Emily $BCA\neq \mathbb{1}$ - check your arithmetic on that. (Note that these matrices don't commute!) – Steven Stadnicki Oct 31 '13 at 22:42
  • Just seen my mistake! It's been a long day. So once i have proved n(ABC)=n(A)n(B)n(C)=BCA= -1 what do i have to do now – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 22:45
  • @Emily You need to walk through the definition of an automorphism and verify that $\eta()$ satisfies all the rules: first, understand how to extend it to the other elements of the group (hint: you already have enough information to define $\eta(q)$ for all $q\in Q$), then prove that it is a homomorphism (hint: show that all the relations respect it), show that it's an automorphism (this should be trivial once you have the full table of $\eta(q)$), and finally show that it's of order three (the 'long way' is to compute $\eta(\eta(\eta(q)))$ for each element of $Q$, but can you find a shortcut?) – Steven Stadnicki Oct 31 '13 at 23:50
  • I don't have a definition of automorphism in my notes. – ZZS14 Nov 03 '13 at 17:20
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first of all i am sorry for making you to do so much non sense.

First of all i believe that you could recognize your $Q$ to be $Q_8$.

So, you have $Q\cong Q_8=\{\pm 1, \pm i, \pm j, \pm ij\}$.

Now, you need to see if there is a possibility for an automoprphism of $Q_8$ to have order $3$

By an "automorphism of a group" you mean a "homomorphism which is bijective"

So, your required map $\eta : Q\rightarrow Q$ has to be a homomorphism.

For that you need $\eta(a.b)=\eta(a).\eta(b) \forall a,b\in Q$

$\eta(a)=\eta(a.1)=\eta(a).\eta(1)$.Thus, $\eta(1)=1$.

Now, you have $1=\eta(1)=\eta(-1.-1)=\eta(-1).\eta(-1)$ i.e., $(\eta(-1))^2=1$

So, only possible choice of $\eta(-1)$ for non trivial bijective function $\eta$ is $-1$

i.e., $\eta(-1)=-1$

You have $Q=\{\pm1,\pm i,\pm j,\pm ij\}$

Now, let us go for next generator that is $i\in Q_8$

you have six possibilities for $i$ namely $\{\pm i, \pm j, \pm k\}$

you want your map to be of order $3$ so you should not send $i$ to $i$.

with previous messed up post you could be able to see that i can not send $i$ to $-i$

Let us consider a map

$\eta : Q\rightarrow Q $ which send $i\rightarrow j$

please see that this should automatically fix image of $i$ i.e.,

$\eta(-i)=\eta(i)=-j$

Now let us try(cry) for possible image of $j$

For similar reason as in previous messed up (and also for the reason that we need it to be bijective),

I can not send $j$ to $j$ or even $-j$

So, possible choices for image of $j$ are $\{\pm i, \pm ij\}$

Suppose $j$ goes to $i$ Then, we would have

$$i \rightarrow j\\-i\rightarrow -j\\ j\rightarrow i (\text{just now defined})\\-j\rightarrow -i(\text{as $j$ is fixed, so is $-j$})$$

It is upto you to see where does $ij$ and $-ij$ goes to,

just use that $\eta$ is a homomorphism i.e., if $a$ and $b$ are fixed in domain of $\eta$, then $\eta(ab)$ is fixed as $\eta(ab)=\eta(a)\eta(b)$

So, you should be able to see that

$$i \rightarrow j\\-i\rightarrow -j\\ j\rightarrow i \\-j\rightarrow -i\\ij\rightarrow ji=-ij \\ ji\rightarrow -ji=ij$$

For similar reason why $i$ should not be sent to $-i$ you should be able to see $ij$ should not be sent to $-ji$. thus above map is not what we need.

So, next possible choice is $j\rightarrow -i$. I would request you to check yourself that this would then be of order $4$

So, next possibility for image of $j$ is $ij$.

Now, you should be able to see where does other elements should be mapped to namely,

$$ i \rightarrow j\\-i\rightarrow -j\\ j\rightarrow ij \\-j\rightarrow -ij \\ij\rightarrow jij=i \\-ij \rightarrow -i$$

Now, you do not have to check this is a homomorphism because it is defined keeping in mind of homomorphism condition.

You can see clearly that this is a bijection.

So, this is an automorphism.

Coming to the order, we see that :

$$i \rightarrow j\rightarrow ij\rightarrow i\\ -i \rightarrow -j\rightarrow -ij\rightarrow -i\\ j\rightarrow ij\rightarrow i \rightarrow j\\ij\rightarrow i \rightarrow j\rightarrow ij$$

Please check other images to make sure it is of order $3$.

I hope this should work.

  • I'm confused when it comes to applying the definition of homomorphism – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 14:23
  • I can see why n(1)=1, but not really why the same holds for -1 – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 14:57
  • would I be right in saying -n(-a)=n(a)? if so is n(-1)=-1 because n(a)=n(-a.-1)=n(-a).n(-a) – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 15:09
  • your justification for $\eta(-a)$ is not correct.. please see the edit –  Oct 31 '13 at 17:21
  • Yes, have just seen it thank you. i'm not really sure how to show that i to -i is a homomorphism. – ZZS14 Oct 31 '13 at 17:30
  • This is, with all due respect, complete nonsense. How can any automorphism $\eta$ that maps $i$ to $-i$ have order 3 when $i = \eta(-i) = \eta^2(i)$ so obviously has order 2? Recognizing a quaternion group in this question is key, but not for this reason... – Steven Stadnicki Oct 31 '13 at 17:54
  • @StevenStadnicki Yes. I was half a sleep and messed it up... Thank you for pointing out the error.. I would correct this as soon as i can.. Thank you. –  Nov 01 '13 at 01:21