Consider Euclid's proof of the infinitude of the prime: suppose we have a list of $n$ primes $p_1, \dots, p_n$. Then $p_1 \dots p_n + 1$ is coprime to them all, hence gives a new prime factor to add to our list.
Now, a well known mistake is to say that $p_1 ... p_n + 1$ must itself be prime, this not true in general, $30031 = (2)(3)(5)(7)(11)(13) + 1$ is a counterexample, divisible by $59$.
Can this mistake be "fixed"? In the sense that in fact $p_1\dots p_n + 1$ is prime infinitely often, so that this does give a proof of their infinitude? If it makes it easier, I am okay with starting with any prime sequence $(p_n)$, including all of them, or the primes produced as the factors by Euclid's proof starting with 2.
I apologize if this has a well-known answer, I searched MSE and MO but could not find anything. It is for idle curiosity (it came up as a thought when discussing prime numbers with a non-math friend).