In a commutative ring $(R,+,\cdot)$ (not necessarily having a multiplicative identity), an ideal $I$ is a subset $I \subseteq R$ such that
- $I \neq \emptyset$
- $\forall x,y \in I: x-y \in I$
- $\forall x \in I, r \in R: r\cdot x \in I$
I am now looking for subsets $N \subseteq R$ which are not ideals but satisfy
- $N \neq \emptyset$
- $\forall x,y \in N: x\mathop{\color{red}+}y \in N$
- $\forall x \in N, r \in R: r\cdot x \in N$
(in other words: I am trying to better understand why/when these two definitions are not equivalent[*])
What I already know:
- A trivial example is the ring $(\mathbb{Z},+,\ast)$, where $\ast$ is the trival multiplication $x\ast y := 0$ for all $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ and the set $N := \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}$.
- If $(R,+,\cdot)$ has a multiplicative identity, the two definitions are equivalent as then $$x-y= x+(-y) = x+(-1)\cdot y \in N$$
- In fact, it suffices if for any element $y \in N$ there exists an element $r \in R$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}^\ast$ with $r\cdot y = n\cdot y := \underbrace{y + \dots + y}_{n \text{ times}}$ since, then, we have $$x - y = x + (-r)\cdot y + (n-1)\cdot y \in N$$
The last observation, in particular, seems to exclude most of the non-unital rings I know of (like essentially everything involving $\mathbb{Z}$ (e.g. $2\mathbb{Z}$) or function spaces like $C_0(\mathbb{R})$)
[*] Why am I interested in that? Because I was giving a lecture on ideals today where I accidentally used the second definition as definition for ideals. When I corrected myself, students wanted to know why the two definitions aren't equivalent -- and I wasn't able to come up with any good counter examples.