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In a commutative ring $(R,+,\cdot)$ (not necessarily having a multiplicative identity), an ideal $I$ is a subset $I \subseteq R$ such that

  1. $I \neq \emptyset$
  2. $\forall x,y \in I: x-y \in I$
  3. $\forall x \in I, r \in R: r\cdot x \in I$

I am now looking for subsets $N \subseteq R$ which are not ideals but satisfy

  1. $N \neq \emptyset$
  2. $\forall x,y \in N: x\mathop{\color{red}+}y \in N$
  3. $\forall x \in N, r \in R: r\cdot x \in N$

(in other words: I am trying to better understand why/when these two definitions are not equivalent[*])


What I already know:

  • A trivial example is the ring $(\mathbb{Z},+,\ast)$, where $\ast$ is the trival multiplication $x\ast y := 0$ for all $x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ and the set $N := \mathbb{Z}_{\geq 0}$.
  • If $(R,+,\cdot)$ has a multiplicative identity, the two definitions are equivalent as then $$x-y= x+(-y) = x+(-1)\cdot y \in N$$
  • In fact, it suffices if for any element $y \in N$ there exists an element $r \in R$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}^\ast$ with $r\cdot y = n\cdot y := \underbrace{y + \dots + y}_{n \text{ times}}$ since, then, we have $$x - y = x + (-r)\cdot y + (n-1)\cdot y \in N$$

The last observation, in particular, seems to exclude most of the non-unital rings I know of (like essentially everything involving $\mathbb{Z}$ (e.g. $2\mathbb{Z}$) or function spaces like $C_0(\mathbb{R})$)


[*] Why am I interested in that? Because I was giving a lecture on ideals today where I accidentally used the second definition as definition for ideals. When I corrected myself, students wanted to know why the two definitions aren't equivalent -- and I wasn't able to come up with any good counter examples.

GraffL
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1 Answers1

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Here is a (nontrivial?) example: $R=x\mathbb Z[x]$, then the following is not an ideal $$\mathbb Nx + xR=\{a_1x+a_2x^2+\cdots+a_nx^n\in R\mid a_1\in\mathbb N\}$$


The above construction has some universality. The OP's observation is very sharp. Let's call any $N$ that satisfies the second group of conditions a "deal" (instead of "ideal"). We can show

A rng $R$ contains a deal that is not an ideal iff $\exists x\in R$, $x$ has infinite order as an element in the group $(R, +)$ and $$\mathbb Nx\cap Rx = \{0\}\Leftrightarrow \mathbb Zx\cap Rx=\{0\}$$

"$\Rightarrow$" is proved by the OP.

"$\Leftarrow$" $: \mathbb Nx + Rx$ is a deal that is not an ideal.


In terms of pedagogy, I think we should not define the ideal in this way, instead just combine the first two conditions to say $I$ is an additive subgroup of $R$, which is much more intuitive.

The counter example $(\mathbb Z, +, *)$ is "good" by all means. That is, when the multiplication is trivial, the difference between a subgroup and a sub-semigroup shows up.

If the students are not happy, we can present it in a "fancy" way:

$$R=\{\begin{pmatrix} 0 & a \\ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix}\mid a\in\mathbb Z\}$$

Just a user
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  • What's the meaning of the blank space in the matrix? And what's the "deal" in the matrix example? – Gerry Myerson May 29 '25 at 11:17
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    My bad, it's just $0$, though I think it's a custom to use blank below diagonal for upper triangular matrix. $R\simeq (\mathbb Z, +, *)$ described by the OP. Explicitly, ${\begin{pmatrix} 0 & a \ 0 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \mid a\in\mathbb N}$ is a "deal". – Just a user May 29 '25 at 11:21
  • Thanks. I think it's also a custom to let people know when you mean for your matrices to be upper triangular. – Gerry Myerson May 29 '25 at 11:34
  • +1 already for "deal". -- One nitpicking though: you mean $\mathbb Nx\cap Rx = {0}\Leftrightarrow \mathbb Zx\cap Rx={0}$ are two equivalent ways to state the condition, not something like "a non-ideal deal exists if (these two are equivalent), but not if they are not equivalent" - correct? – Torsten Schoeneberg May 29 '25 at 17:08
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    @TorstenSchoeneberg that's right, I should have made it more clear. $\Leftarrow$ is obvious. To show $\Rightarrow$, if $\mathbb Zx\cap Rx\not={0}$, say it contains $-nx$ for $-n<0$, then it contains $nx$ since both of $\mathbb Zx$ and $Rx$ are groups. So in the OP's argument, we don't need $n\in\mathbb N^*$ but only $n\in\mathbb Z\setminus{0}$. – Just a user May 29 '25 at 17:13
  • Oh, wow - that's a way more definitive answer than I expected. Very nice characterization! – GraffL May 29 '25 at 21:10