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We already know that for any odd prime $p$, every non abelian $p$-group contains a subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_p \times \mathbb{Z}_p$. So can we say something for even prime? I observed that if $G$ is a non abelian group of order $2^n$ with $n \geq 3$, then $G$ does not contain any subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$ if and only if $G \cong Q_{2^n}$, i.e., generalized quaternion group.

One side is clear, i.e., if $G \cong Q_{2^n}$ then $G$ has no subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$. I am unable to prove the converse part.

A failed attempt: Let $G$ has no subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$. By Sylow's theorem, $G$ must contain a subgroup $H$ of order $8$. Hence $H$ must be isomorphic to either $\mathbb{Z}_8$ or $Q_8$. As $G$ is a $2$-group, it has non trivial center $Z(G)$. If there exists $x \in Z(G) \setminus H$, then we can have a subgroup isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$.

What if $Z(G) < H$? I think in this case $G \cong Q_{2^n}$, but I am unable to prove this. Any hint or comment will be appreciated. Thank you.

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    You can find this result in many textbooks. It is Theorem 5.46 of Rotman's "An Introduction to the Theory of Groups" for example. – Derek Holt May 05 '25 at 18:40
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    Note that (because $p$-groups have non-trivial centers) your condition is equivalent to asking about $p$-groups with a unique subgroup of order $p$. – Steve D May 06 '25 at 00:15
  • @Black Widow: just out of curiosity, how to you handle the case $p>2$ ? – GreginGre May 06 '25 at 09:03
  • @SteveD yes, got it – Black Widow May 06 '25 at 20:03
  • @GreginGre you can proceed similarly as $p=2$, but for $p>2$ we can't get any non abelian group with this property. You can also visit the link https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2377726/let-p-be-an-odd-prime-prove-that-if-p-is-a-non-cyclic-p-group-then-p-co – Black Widow May 06 '25 at 20:08
  • @DerekHolt thank you for your comment. – Black Widow May 06 '25 at 20:13

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