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What's the meaning of $\mod (1+p^n\mathbb Z_p)$?

I am learning $p$-adic numbers, and in one exercise of proving that $x\mapsto (1+p)^x$ defines an isomorphism of abelian groups $(\mathbb Z_p,+)\to (1+p\mathbb Z_p,\times)$, it says that I should prove by induction on $n$ that there exists $x_n\in \mathbb Z_p$, such that $(1+p)^{x_n}\equiv 1+pa\mod (1+p^n\mathbb Z_p)$.

However I am quite confused what $\mod (1+p^n\mathbb Z_p)$ here means. Does this mean that there exists $1+p^nb\in 1+p^n\mathbb Z_p$ such that $(1+p)^{x_n}=(1+pa)(1+p^nb)?$

But I think when we talk about mod, we should mod some ideal of a ring?


Edit: For $x\in \mathbb Z_p$, $p$ odd prime, $(1+p)^x$ is defined as $1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{x(x-1)\cdots(x-n+1)}{n!}p^n$, which converges in $\mathbb Z_p$. And I have understood why it is in $1+p\mathbb Z_p$.

Proving by induction on $n$ that there exists $x_n\in \mathbb Z_p$, such that $(1+p)^{x_n}\equiv 1+pa\mod (1+p^n\mathbb Z_p)$ is a hint when proving the surjectiveness of $(\mathbb Z_p,+)\to (1+p\mathbb Z_p,\times), x\mapsto (1+p)^x$.

John Omielan
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shwsq
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    That is weird, because elements of $1+p^n\mathbb Z_p$ consists of units of $\mathbb Z_p.$ I'd suggest you need to check if the book/resource has an errata section. In any event, the first thing you have to do is define $(1+p)^x$ for $x\in\mathbb Z_p.$ – Thomas Andrews May 03 '25 at 14:47
  • Oh I have defined this before, but I think this is not relevant since I am asking about what mod means. For $x\in \mathbb Z_p$, $p$ odd prime, $(1+p)^x$ is defined as $1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{x(x-1)\cdots(x-n+1)}{n!}p^n$, which converges in $\mathbb Z_p$. And I have understood why it is in $1+p\mathbb Z_p$. – shwsq May 03 '25 at 14:49
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    Pretty sure this is a typo - the induction makes more sense mod $p^n \mathbb Z_p$. What they probably meant was that the two sides should be in the same multiplicative coset of $(1+p^n \mathbb Z_p)$. – Eric May 03 '25 at 15:16
  • Yeah, the problem is the "mod" is very odd. I'd also guess the $1+$ is a typo. – Thomas Andrews May 03 '25 at 15:23
  • I also don't know what $a$ is supposed to be. It is weird to write this, mod $p^n\mathbb Z_p$ since $\equiv 1+pa\pmod {p^n\mathbb Z_p}$ is the same as $\equiv 1\pmod{p\mathbb Z_p},$ unless $a$ is a given. – Thomas Andrews May 03 '25 at 15:28
  • But without more context, it is very hard to tell. – Thomas Andrews May 03 '25 at 15:29
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    @shwsq, $(\mathbb{Z}_p,+)$ and $(1+p\mathbb{Z}_p, \times)$ are indeed isomorphic as topological groups, one can define the p-adic exponential map from $\mathbb{Z}_p$ to $1+\mathbb{Z}_p$ and the inverse is given by the $p$-adic logarithm. – Learner May 03 '25 at 16:24
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    Isn't $1+p^n \mathbb{Z}_p$ a subgroup of the multiplicative group $1 + p \mathbb{Z}_p$? That seems to be the meaning of "mod" to me. This is in the same way that for any group $G$ and subgroup $H$, one might say $g_1 \equiv g_2 \mod{H}$ if $g_1 H = g_2 H$ as cosets in $G/H$. In your case, the group is abelian so the subgroup is even normal. – Viktor Vaughn May 04 '25 at 00:21
  • $a\in \mathbb Z_p$ is taken arbitrarily. – shwsq May 04 '25 at 02:45
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    I have worked out how to do by understanding "mod" as $\mod p^n\mathbb Z_p$. And I think mod here indeed seems to mean as in the same coset of the subgroup $1+p^n\mathbb Z_p$, as Viktor Vaughn said. I searched in books and find similar $\mod \cdot$ in some books. (For example in Hungerford, Algebra, Definition 4.1 in Chapter 1) And I find that actually $(1+p)^{x_n}\equiv 1+ap\mod p^n\mathbb Z_p$ is the same as $(1+p)^{x_n}\equiv 1+ap\mod (1+p^n\mathbb Z_p)$ as a subgroup. Thanks a lot! – shwsq May 04 '25 at 02:45

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First thing first, this result is false for $p=2$. Indeed, $$(\mathbb Z_2, +)\simeq (1+4\mathbb Z_p,\times)\not\simeq (1+2\mathbb Z_2, \times)\simeq (1+4\mathbb Z_2)\times\{\pm 1\}$$

Deails can be found in e.g. Serre's Serre's A Course in Arithmetic.


It is very common in commutative algebra to write $a\equiv b\mod I$ when $I$ is an ideal of a commutative ring and $a-b\in I$. It is less common but not unheard of to use the notation in group theory, such as in this post. In van der Waerden's classic, he introduced the same notation for abelian groups at the end of Section 2.5 (also in Hungerford as OP mentioned in the comment).

I do remember seeing this notation in the context of $p$-adic multiplicative structures, but couldn't find any now. In your context, it made sense in both ways. The strategy is clear: First show that $x\mapsto(1+p)^x$ is a continuous group homomorphism, and its kernel is trivial. The hard part is to show it's also surjective. To do this, given any $1+pa$, if we can inductively build $x_n$ such that

$$(1+p)^{x_n}(1+pa)^{-1}\in 1+p^n\mathbb Z_p$$

Then since $\mathbb Z_p$ is compact, we can find a convergent subsequence $x_{n_m}\rightarrow x$, such that $$(1+p)^x(1+pa)^{-1}=\lim_{m\rightarrow \infty} (1+p)^{x_{n_m}}(1+pa)^{-1} = 1$$ $$\Longrightarrow (1+p)^x = 1+pa$$

But the same method essentially works if we can find $x_n$ such that $(1+p)^{x_n}-(1+pa)\in p^n\mathbb Z_p$.


Now we prove the result for $p\ge 3$. First, we prove a lemma (note that it is false when $p=2, n=1, x=2, m=2$):

$$\forall x\in \mathbb Z_p, n\ge 0, p^n\mid x \Rightarrow \forall m \ge 2, p^{n+2}\mid {x \choose m}p^m$$ $$\Downarrow$$ $$(1+p)^x\equiv 1 + px \mod p^{\nu_p(x) + 2}$$

Because ${x\choose m}$ sends $\mathbb Z$ to $\mathbb Z$, hence being a continuous function (a polynomial) it must send the closure of $\mathbb Z$ to itself, i.e. ${x\choose m}\in\mathbb Z_p$ whenever $x\in\mathbb Z_p$, therefore when $m\ge n+2$, we are done. When $m\le n+1\le p^n$, for each $1\le k <m$, $\nu_p(k)\le n \le \nu_p(x)$, hence $\nu_p(x-k)\ge\max(\nu_p(x), \nu_p(k))\ge \nu_p(k)$, in other words $\frac{x-k}{k}\in\mathbb Z_p$, so

$$\nu_p({x \choose m} p^m)\ge \nu_p(x) + m -\nu_p(m)\ge n + m -\nu_p(m)$$

We show $m-\nu_p(m)\ge 2$. When $\nu_p(m)=0$, it depends on the assumption $m\ge 2$. If $\nu_p(m) = k\ge 1$, $m=p^km'$, $$m-\nu_p(m)=p^k m' - k\ge p^k - k$$ And $p^k -k \ge 2$ can be easily shown by induction on $k$ (Note that the base case $k=1$ depends on the assumption $p\ge 3$).

We skip proving $x\mapsto (1+p)^x$ is a homomorphism. The lemma is useful in proving both injectivity and surjectivity. For injectivity, if $(1+p)^x = 1$ and $x\not=0\Leftrightarrow \nu_p(x)<\infty$, by our lemma $(1+p)^x\equiv 1+ px \mod p^{\nu_p(x)+2}$, and since $\nu_p(xp)=\nu_p(x)+1\Rightarrow px\not\equiv 0 \mod p^{\nu_p(x)+2}$, we have $(1+p)^x\not\equiv 1\mod p^{\nu_p(x)+2}$.

For surjectivity, note that $1+p^n\mathbb Z_p$ is a multiplicative subgroup of $\mathbb Z_p^{\times}$, $(1+pa)^{-1} = 1+pb$ for some $b$. When $n=1$, we have $(1+p)(1+pa)^{-1} = (1+p)(1+pb)\in 1+p\mathbb Z_p$, so the base case is solid, and now we finish the induction step.

That is, we already have $(1+p)^{x_n}(1+pb)=1+p^n y$ for some $y\in Z_p$, to build $x_{n+1}$, we decompose $x_{n+1} = x_n + z$ for some $z\in\mathbb Z_p$ to be constructed, so

$$(1+p)^{x_{n+1}}(1+pb) = (1+p)^{x_n + z}(1+pb) = (1+p)^{x_n}(1+pb)(1+p)^z = (1+p^ny)(1+p)^z$$

If we can find $z$ such that $(1+p)^z \equiv 1-p^n y \mod p^{n+1}$, we are done. By our lemma $z=-p^{n-1}y$ works.


To work out the proof by showing $(1+p)^{x_n}\equiv 1+pa \mod p^n$, similar to above, we need to find $z$ such that

$$(1+p)^{x_n+z}-(1+pa) = (1+pa+p^ny)(1+p)^z - (1+pa)\in p^{n+1}\mathbb Z_p$$

This is possible ($z=\frac{-p^{n-1}y}{1+pa}$) but definitely harder, so I don't think it's a typo.

In again Serre's A Course in Arithmetic, he established the result by analyzing $U_n/U_{n-1}$ where $U_n:=1+p^n\mathbb Z_p$, so it's more natural to exploit the multiplicative structure of $1+p\mathbb Z_p$ rather than the additive one.

Just a user
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    Re: notation: Congruences (equivalences relations compatible with all operations) are defined as usual for any class of (equational) algebraic structures (variety, and it is not uncommon to use Gauss's congruence notation. In algebras like groups and rings, where we can normalize $a=b$ to $a−b=0,,$ congruences are determined by a single congruence class (e.g. an ideal in a ring), and are called ideal determined varieties. $\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque May 05 '25 at 17:41
  • @BillDubuque Thanks for sharing. While I celebrate universal algebraist's abuse of notation, I have protested their abuse of the terminology "variety" for more than a decade. – Just a user May 06 '25 at 00:07
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    You can of course use the alternative "equational class" as I did above. $\ \ $ – Bill Dubuque May 06 '25 at 00:26