2

Let $W=\{W(t)\}_{t \in [0,\infty)}$ be a Brownian Motion and $X=\{X(t):=W(t)-t W(1)\}_{t \in [0,1]}$ the associated Brownian Bridge. I wan't to verify that $X$ is not adapted to the natural filtration of $W$, i.e. not adapted to $\mathcal{F}^W=\{\mathcal{F}^W(t)\}_{t \in [0,1]}$ with $\mathcal{F}^W(t):= \sigma(W(r): r \leq t)$.

my attempt: Choose $t=0.5$ and show that $\sigma(W(0.5)-0.5* W(1)) \not\subset \sigma(W(r): r \leq 0.5)$. The independent increments property of the Brownian Motion gives us that $W(1)-W(0.5)$ is independent of $\sigma(W(r):r \leq 0.5)$. Additionally we know that $W(1)-W(0.5)$ is $\sim\mathcal{N}(0,0.5)$ distributed. So we can choose an $B \in \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})$ (e.g. $B = [0,2]$) such that $\mathbb{P}[W(1)-W(0.5) \in B] \in (0,1)$. Together with the independence of $\sigma(W(r):r \leq 0.5)$ we can conclude that $A:= \{W(1)-W(0.5) \in B\} \in \sigma(W(1)-W(0.5) )$ but $A \notin \sigma(W(r): r \leq 0.5) $, since otherwise we would have $\mathbb{P}[A]= \mathbb{P}[A \cap A]= \mathbb{P}[A]^2$ which can't be true for $\mathbb{P}[A]\in (0,1)$.

However this just holds for $W(1)-W(0.5)$ and not for $W(0.5)-0.5*W(1)$ and I see no direct argument to transfer this argumentation. It even holds that $W(0.5)-0.5*W(1)$ and $\sigma(W(r): r \leq 0.5) $ are dependent since $cov[W(0.5),W(0.5)-0.5*W(1)]=0.25\neq 0$.

I would be thankful for any hints!

Louis
  • 321
  • 1
    If it were adapted, $\mathbb{E}(X(t)|\mathcal{F}^W(t))$ would be (essentially) a constant. Is it? –  May 03 '25 at 10:01
  • @ProfessorVector If it were adapted, we would have $\mathbb{E}[X(t)|\mathcal{F}^W(t)]= X(t)$ or not? How does this lead to a contradiction? – Louis May 03 '25 at 17:21
  • In this case (integrable) $\mathbb{E}[X(t)|\mathcal{F}^W(t)]= X(t)$ a.s. is equivalent with "adapted". –  May 03 '25 at 17:40
  • @ProfessorVector So the argument is, if $X$ would be adapted to $\mathcal{F}^W$, then it would hold $(W(0.5)-0.5 W(1) = \mathbb{E}[W(0.5)-0.5W(1)|\mathcal{F}^W(0.5)] = W(0.5)-0.5 \mathbb{E}[W(1)|\mathcal{F}^W(0.5)]$ a.s. so $W(1) = \mathbb{E}[W(1)|\mathcal{F}^W(0.5)]$ a.s. which implies that $W(1)$ is measurable w.r.t. to $\mathcal{F}^W(0.5)$ (or can at least be modified on a null set) which is a contradiction to the fact that $W(1)-W(0.5)$ is independent of $\mathcal{F}^W(0.5)$? – Louis May 03 '25 at 19:32
  • Yes, that looks ok. –  May 04 '25 at 15:46

0 Answers0