Context
This is purely a question of curiosity, I can't provide much context.
I am taking a course in computational fluid dynamics to say that a class of problems can be classified as "saddle point problems".
We introduced the Gateaux derivative and made some application examples just to see how to use it.
Let $V$ be a Hilbert space and let $F$ be a generic functional from $V$ to $\mathbb{R}$.
As a definition in our space we said that if
$${}_{V'}\langle d,w\rangle_{V}:=\lim_{\lambda\to 0^{+}}\frac{F(v+\lambda w)-F(v)}{\lambda}$$
then we define the Gateaux derivative as
$$d=F'(v)$$
We have given two examples of Gateaux derivative, one for a linear functional and one for a quadratic functional.
$$\text{If }F(v)={}_{V'}\langle f,v\rangle_V\quad\text{then}\quad F'(v)=f\quad \forall v\in V$$
$$\text{If }F(v)=\frac{1}{2}a(v,v)\quad\text{then}\quad F'(v)=a(v,\cdot)\quad\forall v\in V$$
Where $a$ is a symmetric bilinear form.
Question
Since the analogy with derivatives is obvious, I was wondering what the inverse operation was.
Because
- in the case of a linear operator the inverse operation is the duality with a test function essentially (and it makes sense because duality is an integral anyway)
- In the case of the symmetric bilinear operator it is essentially evaluating the function on a test function, but then in the case of it being symmetric you also have to divide by $2$
Clarification, if $a$ was a non-symmetric bilinear operator I would have had
$$\text{if }F(v)=\frac{1}{2}a(v,v)\text{ then }F'(v)=\frac{1}{2}(a(v,\cdot)+a(\cdot,v))\quad\forall v\in V$$