A component of the finite group $G$ is a subgroup $H$ satisfying the following conditions:
(1) $H$ is quasisimple (i.e. $H/Z(H)$ is simple and $[H,H]=H$)
(2) $H$ is subnormal in $G$
Exercise 6.5.2 in Kurzweil & Stellmacher, The Theory of Finite Groups is the following:
Let $t$ be an involution of $G$ and $E$ a component of $C_G(t)$. Then $E$ normalizes every component of $G$.
I'm quite stumped on this and don't how to make use of the fact that $t$ is an involution, or even where to begin.
For context, this question is in the section on the generalized Fitting subgroup $F^*(G)$. A few theorems proved in this and earlier sections that seem like they might be relevant:
(1) If $K$ is a component of $G$ and $L$ is subnormal in $G$, then either $K \le L$ or $[K,L]=1$.
(2) If $L$ is subnormal in $G$ then $F^*(L) = F^*(G) \cap L$
(3) $C_G(F^*(G)) \le F^*(G)$
There's more, but all the propositions and theorems of these sections deal with subnormal subgroups of $G$, whereas $C_G(t)$ need not be subnormal in $G$. So again, not sure where to use them.
So far, all I've been able to come with is the following: it suffices to assume that
$G = C \langle K^C \rangle$
where $C = C_G(t)$, $K$ is a component of $G$, and $\langle K^C \rangle$ denotes the subgroup generated by the conjugates of $K$ by elements of $C$, which is a central product of conjugates of $K$.
If it helps, we may as well assume $\langle K^C \rangle$ is a direct product of simple groups, on which $C$ acts. I attempted to use the strategy of "try to come up with a counterexample and see why it doesn't work". My (failed) counterexample was:
$G = (\langle t \rangle \times A_5) \rtimes (M_1 \times \ldots \times M_5)$
where $M_1, \ldots, M_5$ are isomorphic simple groups (let's say copies of the Monster group, or whatever) and $A_5$ acts by permuting the coordinates of this direct product, and $\langle t \rangle$ acts by permuting $M_1$ and $M_2$. Then $A_5$ doesn't normalize any of $M_1, \ldots, M_5$, which are components of $G$. The reason the counterexample fails, is because $A_5$ fails to be subnormal in $C_G(t)$. The actual components of $C_G(t)$ are $M_3, M_4, M_5$, and the diagonal set $\{(m,m)\}\subset M_1 \times M_2$, and sure enough each of these normalizes the components of $G$ which are $M_1, \ldots, M_5$.
Maybe this is a clue that $E(C_G(t)) \le E(G)$, perhaps? ($E(G)$ denotes the product of the components of $G$.) But that might just be a coincidence. At any rate, thinking about this example doesn't seem to have gotten me anywhere.