For the following
Proposition. $X$ normed space. If $X^*$ separable, then $X$ separable.
I'm aware of an elementary proof, as presented here. However, I prefer using theorems, instead of using tricks. So I wonder if my proof below is correct. The listed theorems/lemmas are allowed to be used.
Thm. $X$ Banach separable. Then closed unit ball $ball X^*$ of the dual is $wk^*$-metrizable.
Banach-Alaoglu. $X$ normed. Then $ball X^*$ is $wk^*$ compact.
Lemma. $X$ normed. Then the canonical map $\pi: X\to X^{**}$ is a $wk$-$\sigma(X^{**}, X^*)$ embedding, and $\pi(X)$ is $\sigma(X^{**}, X^*)$ dense in $X^{**}$.
Lemma'. $X$ locally convex with top $\tau$. A subset $C\subset X$ nonempty and convex. Then $cl_{wk} C=cl_\tau C$.
Lemma''. A compact metric space $Y$ is totally bounded and separable. If defining $$E_n:=\left\{y_{n}^{k}\in Y: \bigcup_{k=1}^{m_n} B_Y\left(y_n^k, 1/n\right)=Y, m_n< +\infty\right\},$$ then $E:=\bigcup_{n}E_n$ is a countable dense subset of $Y$. Moreover, if $Y'\subset Y$ is a dense subset, then $Y'$ is also separable and contains a countable subset $E'$ that is dense in $Y$.
Proof of Proposition. (We use $wk^{**}$ to denote $\sigma(X^{**}, X^*)$ topology of the double dual $X^{**}$)
Since $X^*$ is Banach and separable. By Thm, $Y:=ball X^{**}$ is $wk^{**}$-metrizable. It is also compact by Banach-Alaoglu. Let $d$ be a metric inducing the relative $wk^{**}$ topology on $Y$. Then, $(Y, d)$ is metric compact. By lemma, $\pi(ball X)$ is $d$-dense in $Y$. By lemma'', there exists a countable set $D\subset ball X$ s.t. $\pi(D)$ is $d$-dense in $Y$. This gives $$cl_{wk}D=ball X.$$
Then, consider the convex hull $co(D)$. We have $D\subset co(D)\subset ball X.$ Thus, lemma' gives $$cl_{\|\cdot\|}co(D)=cl_{wk}co(D)=cl_{wk}D=ball X.$$
However, the convex hull is not countable. To fix this, take $D'$ as the rational convex hull of $D$. That is $$D':=\left\{\sum_{i=1}^m r_ix_i: x_1,\cdots, x_m\in D; r_1,\cdots, r_m\in \mathbb{Q}\cap [0,1]; \sum_{i=1}^mr_i=1\right\}$$ Then $D'\subset ball X$ is countable. Note $D'$ is $\|\cdot\|$-dense in $co(D)$, and so we finally get $$cl_{\|\cdot\|}D'=cl_{\|\cdot\|} co(D)=ball X.$$ $\square$
I have not seen any proof taking this route. But I can't seem to find any error. Thanks in advance.