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I was considering how to calculate a general solution for the following series by using the Maclaurin series;$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n^a}{n!}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n^a}{n!}$$ where $a{\in}{\mathbb{N}}$. Seeing the factorial in the denominator, i considered using the Maclaurin series for $e^x$ $$f(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!}f^{(n)}(0).$$ So Looking at the exponential Maclaurin series, we see that $$e^x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!}\;{\Rightarrow}\;\frac{d}{dx}(e^x)=\frac{d}{dx}\big(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n!}\big)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{nx^{n-1}}{n!}.$$ Differentiation of the seriesadds a product of n into the numerator of the fraction, but decreases the x power by one, so the next product introduced to the the numerator by another itteration of differentiation would be $n-1$, which is less useful. Multiplying each side by x can help with this, so we have

$$xe^x=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{nx^n}{n!}\;{\Rightarrow}\;\frac{d}{dx}(xe^x)=\frac{d}{dx}\big(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{nx^n}{n!}\big)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n^2x^{n-1}}{n!}$$

And this process of differentiating and multiplying by x can be repeated until the summation is in the form of $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n^ax^n}{n!}$$ and can be calculated for $x=1$, which is the original summation that i aimed to calculate a result for, by finding the value of $e^x$ differentiated and then multiplied by x, repeated $a{\in}{\mathbb{N}}$ times, at x=1.

However, finding this left hand side is my problem. Let $E_0(x)=e^x$, and $E_a(x)=xE^{(r-1)}(x)$. We have that $$E_a(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n^ax^n}{n!}\;{\Rightarrow}\;E_a(1)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{n^a}{n!}.$$ If I can find a formula for $E_a(1)$, then I am finished as this is the value of the summation that I am trying to calculate, but i have had no success finding a formula for $E_a(1)$.

Could someone please suggest how to find such a formula if possible?

  • If I remember correctly, this is $B_n\cdot e$ where $B_n$ is the $n$th Bell number (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bell_number) (not to be confused with the $n$th Bernoulli number, which is also often written $B_n$). EDIT: Indeed, this is Dobiński's formula (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dobi%C5%84ski%27s_formula) – Akiva Weinberger Feb 19 '25 at 01:06
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    This question is a duplicate of: Infinite Series $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{k^n}{k!}$. If you believe it’s different, please [edit] the question, make it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question are not helpful for your problem. – Martin Brandenburg Feb 19 '25 at 01:09
  • Duplicate found quickly with approach0: https://approach0.xyz/search/?q=OR%20content%3A%24%5Csum_%7Bn%3D1%7D%5E%7B%5Cinfty%7D%5Cfrac%7Bn%5Ea%7D%7Bn!%7D%24&p=1 – Martin Brandenburg Feb 19 '25 at 01:09
  • You can write $x^a=\sum_{k=0}^a b_{a,k}(x)k$ for some double sequence $zb{a,k},$ where $(x)k$ are the "falling factorial" polynomials. Then you get your sum is $e\sum{k=0}^a b_k.$ – Thomas Andrews Feb 19 '25 at 01:21
  • I should have specified that i am specifically looking to base my solution off of a Maclaurin series, which the other question does not do – Josh Cherrington Feb 19 '25 at 01:24
  • Now, $x\cdot (x)k=(x){k+1}+k(x)k,$ which gives us a recursion, $b{a+1,k}=kb_{a,k}+b_{a,k+1}.$ – Thomas Andrews Feb 19 '25 at 01:27

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