I'm trying to wrap my head around the concept of inductive limit topologies, especially since it hasn't been that long since I've started learning about category theory.
Let $(X_i)_{i \in I}$ be a family of subsets of a common topological space $E$ with their subspace topology induced by $E$, and suppose that for any given pair $(i,j) \in I^2$, we have $X_i \cup X_j \subseteq X_k$ for some $k \in I$.
We equip $I$ with the following partial order $\leq$: $i \leq j$ iff $X_i \subseteq X_j$, and let for any pair $(i,j)$ such that $i \leq j$ the inclusion map $f_i^j := \operatorname{id}_{X_i \to X_j}$.
$\left((I, \leq), (X_i)_{i \in I}, (f_i^j)_{i \leq j}\right)$ is then a directed system of topological spaces, and $X := \bigcup_i X_i$ (which does not have to be the whole of $E$) given the corresponding final topology, i.e. the topology where a subset $F \subseteq X$ is closed in $X$ iff $F \cap X_i$ is closed in $X_i$ for all $i \in I$, is the inductive limit of said system.
So far so good (I hope). Now, given this setup, let's consider the following question:
Let $(p_a)_{a \in A}$ be a net in $X$ converging to a point $p \in X$.
Is it true that there should exist $i \in I$ such that a subnet of $(p_a)_{a \in A}$ converges to $p$ in $X_i$?
To connect the dots with the second half of the title, what I've first attempted was to show that perhaps the $X_i$s themselves are open sets in $X$, which would make the proof easy: by definition, the convergence of $(p_a)_{a \in A}$ to $p$ implies that for all open neighbourhoods $U$ of $p$, $(p_a)_{a \in A}$ is eventually in $U$, and so in particular this would apply to any $X_i \owns p$. Notice how this would be somewhat overkill.
However, it seemed off to me because in the example I have in mind the $X_i$s would be closed subsets of $E$, and so the $X_i$s are all closed in $X$, as, for any fixed $i \in I$, $X_i \cap X_j$ would be closed in $E$ and so in $X_j$ for all $j \in I$. Evidently, this would prevent $X$ from ever being a connected space if a $X_i \neq X$ were clopen instead of just closed, and so while this does not constitute a true argument, it's counterintuitive enough that I feel I should take another approach...
I also welcome any comments and answers which would instead point out if I've badly translated the problem from its original context, for example maybe it is actually necessary to have $E$ be a locally convex TVS and the $X_i$s be subspaces?
Just like my previous question, this question stems from a statement from the article "Fourier transform for mean periodic functions" by Lázsló Székelyhidi, where the existence of the given $i \in I$ (nonzero compactly supported Borel measure on $\mathbb{R}$ $\mu$) such that the net (of polynomials seen as continuous functions) is in $X_i$ ($= V(\mu) = \{f \in \mathcal{C}(\mathbb{R}) \mid f \ast \mu = 0\}$) comes "[from] the definition of the inductive limit topology".
Feel free to edit and/or re-tag if appropriate or necessary.