New update:
It seems that my question (ii) has some mistakes. It should be something like "axiom of countable dependent choice". I'm confused if there is such an axiom.
--
Let's check Munkres' “Topology”, page 208, Theorem 33.1 (Urysohn lemma), Step 1.
(i) We may have countable choices to choose next $r\in\mathbb{Q}\cap[0,1]-P_{n}$. But if we arrange all the elements of $\mathbb{Q}$ as $0,1,\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3},\frac{2}{3},\cdots$, the choice is uniquely determined in every pick of $r$. So, I think we can avoid the Axiom of countable choice here. Am I right?
(ii) After we choose next $r\in\mathbb{Q}\cap[0,1]-P_{n}$, the normality of $X$ tells me that there exists an open set $U_{r}$ of $X$ such that $\overline{U}_{p}\subset U_{r}$ and $\overline{U}_{r}\subset U_{q}$. The normality only tells me that exists such a $U_{r}$ but we don't know what exactly this $U_{r}$ is . So, here, from $r$ to $U_{r}$, we may have infinite choices. These choices are also uncountable. So, the full Axiom of choice is applied here and we cannot avoid it. Am I right?
I conclude that the Urysohn Lemma does use full Axiom of choice (AC). Am I right?
I need your help. Thank you.
This a question from Munkres' Topology. I show you the whole context of the question below.
