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My main question in very general is as follows: if $\mathcal{A}$ is a full subcategory of an abelian category $\mathcal{B}$, and $X, Y$ are objects of $\mathcal{A}$, can we relate $\operatorname{Ext}^k_{\mathcal{A}}(X,Y)$ and $\operatorname{Ext}^k_{\mathcal{B}}(X,Y)$ in any meaningful way? (Let's say that we have enough injectives in both $\mathcal{A}$ and $\mathcal{B}$).

More precisely, since $\operatorname{Ext}^1$ classifies extensions, then if any extension of $X$, $Y$ lies in $\mathcal{B}$, we will have an isomorphism between $\operatorname{Ext}^1_{\mathcal{A}}(X,Y)$ and $\operatorname{Ext}^1_{\mathcal{B}}(X,Y)$. This is, for instance, the case if $\mathcal{A}$ is a Serre subcategory. Is it possible to write a statement like that in general? I. e., is it possible to put some restrictions on $\mathcal{A}$ or/and $X,Y$, so that $\operatorname{Ext}^k_{\mathcal{A}}(X,Y) \simeq \operatorname{Ext}^k_{\mathcal{B}}(X,Y)$ holds?

radekzak
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  • How do you define $\textrm{Ext}^k$? Are you aware of the general definition in terms of $\mathbf{R}\textrm{Hom}$ and the derived category? – Zhen Lin Jan 26 '25 at 01:02
  • Are you aware that for general $\mathcal{A},\mathcal{B}$ what you are asking clearly fails (even for some of the simplest situations)? – Javier Herrero Jan 26 '25 at 10:06
  • @ZhenLin I was thinking mostly about Yoneda Ext, but we can assume $\mathcal{A}$ and $\mathcal{B}$ have enough injectives (as in the post), so that the usual definition via resolutions would work. (But feel free to make any additional assumptions you need). – radekzak Jan 26 '25 at 13:22
  • @JavierHerrero Could you provide an example? I'm not quite sure what you mean. – radekzak Jan 26 '25 at 13:22
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    You can consider $\mathcal{B} = \textsf{Ab}$ the category of abelian groups, one can then consider $\mathcal{A}$ the full subcategory of $\mathbb{Z}/(4)$-modules viewed as $\mathbb{Z}$-modules with trivial action by the ideal $(4)$. Then it is obvious that the global (homological) dimension of $\mathcal{A}$ is infinite whereas $\mathcal{B}$ is hereditary (global dimension $=1$). This gives a counterexample in the general case. – Javier Herrero Jan 26 '25 at 13:54
  • Oh, yes, okay, definitely I didn't expect for it to hold in general – hence my question if for some particular $X, Y$ that might work – radekzak Jan 26 '25 at 15:32
  • I don't really think injectives are relevant and would exclude important examples, e.g. the full subcategory of finitely generated abelian groups in the category of abelian groups. The definition in terms of $\mathbf{R}\textrm{Hom}$ and the derived category is basically a generalisation of the Yoneda definition. If you arrange for the inclusion $\mathcal{A} \hookrightarrow \mathcal{B}$ to induce a functor between the derived categories (e.g. by assuming $\mathcal{A}$ is closed under kernels, cokernels, and direct sums) then we would get natural maps between the $\textrm{Ext}^*$ groups too. – Zhen Lin Jan 26 '25 at 15:44
  • @ZhenLin can you give any example of such an exact inclusion? – Javier Herrero Jan 26 '25 at 17:18
  • The subcategory of f.g. abelian groups, as I mentioned. This is even a Serre subcategory so as you expect the $\textrm{Ext}^*$ groups are isomorphic. – Zhen Lin Jan 26 '25 at 23:37
  • Dear @ZhenLin, Assume that $\mathcal{A}$ is a Serre subcategory of $\mathcal{B}$. For $X,Y\in\mathcal{A}$ and an integer $i>1$, how do you know that $\mathrm{Ext}{\mathcal{A}}^i(X,Y)$ is isomorphic to $\mathrm{Ext}{\mathcal{B}}^i(X,Y)$? – Doug Apr 01 '25 at 06:11
  • Hmmm. Maybe I need a stronger condition – something like, every chain complex in $\mathcal{B}$ with homology in $\mathcal{A}$ is quasi-isomorphic to a chain complex in $\mathcal{A}$. – Zhen Lin Apr 01 '25 at 12:18

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The most general definition of $\textrm{Ext}^*$ groups for an abelian category $\mathcal{A}$ goes via the derived category $\mathbf{D} (\mathcal{A})$. Very briefly, the derived category $\mathbf{D} (\mathcal{A})$ is obtained by freely inverting the quasi-isomorphisms in the category of chain complexes $\textbf{Ch} (\mathcal{A})$, and $\textrm{Ext}^n (X, \Sigma^n Y)$ is defined to be the group of morphisms $X \to \Sigma^n Y$ in $\mathbf{D} (\mathcal{A})$, where $X$ is identified (by abuse of notation) with the chain complex concentrated in degree $0$ with value $X$, and $\Sigma^n Y $ is the chain complex concentrated in (homological) degree $n$ with value $Y$.

Note that the general definition makes sense even without injective resolutions, and the relationship with Yoneda extensions is fairly direct: given an exact sequence $$0 \longrightarrow Y \longrightarrow Z_n \longrightarrow \cdots \longrightarrow Z_1 \longrightarrow X \longrightarrow 0$$ we have a chain complex $Z$ (with $Z_0 = X$, $Z_i$ as given for $1 \le i \le n$ and $Z_i = 0$ otherwise) quasi-isomorphic to $\Sigma^n Y$ and an evident chain complex morphism $X \to Z$, hence an element of $\textrm{Ext}^n (X, Y)$ as desired. Diagrammatically: $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} 0 @>>> 0 @>>> 0 @>>> \cdots @>>> 0 @>>> X @>>> 0 \\ @VVV @VVV @VVV & & @VVV @VVV @VVV \\ 0 @>>> Z_n @>>> Z_{n-1} @>>> \cdots @>>> Z_1 @>>> X @>>> 0 \\ @AAA @AAA @AAA & & @AAA @AAA @AAA \\ 0 @>>> Y @>>> 0 @>>> \cdots @>>> 0 @>>> 0 @>>> 0 \end{CD} $$ Conversely, given an element of $\textrm{Ext}^n (X, Y)$, we can construct a diagram of the above form and thus obtain a Yoneda extension of $Y$ by $X$, but this requires a bit more theory to justify.

Using the above definitions, it is basically immediate that when we have an exact functor $F : \mathcal{A} \to \mathcal{B}$ between abelian categories, we have an induced functor $\mathbf{D} (\mathcal{A}) \to \mathbf{D} (\mathcal{B})$ and hence natural maps $\textrm{Ext}^n (X, Y) \to \textrm{Ext}^n (F (X), F (Y))$ for all $X$ and $Y$ in $\mathcal{A}$ and all $n$. However, as mentioned in the comments, even if $F : \mathcal{A} \to \mathcal{B}$ is fully faithful, this map need not be an isomorphism; equivalently, the induced functor $\mathbf{D} (\mathcal{A}) \to \mathbf{D} (\mathcal{B})$ need not be fully faithful. (For example, take $\mathcal{A}$ to be the category of $\mathbb{F}_p$-modules, take $\mathcal{B}$ to be the category of $\mathbb{Z}$-modules, and take $F$ to be the forgetful functor.)

In general, we must instead consider derived functors, and this is where things start getting really tricky. It is possible to define right derived functors without assuming enough injectives. (With that definition, it is a theorem that injective resolutions give the correct answer.) If we have a right derived functor $\mathbf{R} F : \mathbf{D} (\mathcal{A}) \to \mathbf{D} (\mathcal{B})$ (or even a partial one) we get maps $\textrm{Ext}^n (X, Y) \to \textrm{Ext}^n (\mathbf{R} F (X), \mathbf{R} F (Y))$ and also maps $F (Z) \to \mathbf{R} F (Z)$. These can be combined to form a zigzag: $$\textrm{Ext}^n (X, Y) \longrightarrow \textrm{Ext}^n (\mathbf{R} F (X), \mathbf{R} F (Y)) \longleftarrow \textrm{Ext}^n (\mathbf{R} F (X), F (Y)) \longrightarrow \textrm{Ext}^n (F (X), F (Y))$$ In the case where $F (Y) \to \mathbf{R} F (Y)$ is an isomorphism in $\mathbf{D} (\mathcal{B})$ (e.g. if $Y$ admits a resolution by injectives in $\mathcal{A}$ and $F$ sends that to a (not necessarily injective) resolution in $\mathcal{B}$), we get what could be called a canonical map $\textrm{Ext}^n (X, Y) \to \textrm{Ext}^n (F (X), F (Y))$, but I do not know how useful this is.

Zhen Lin
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  • I would have expected the mentioning of the Grothendieck spectral sequence here. Applied to the given functor $F$ and the hom-functor. Just guessing, tho. – Martin Brandenburg Jan 29 '25 at 07:49
  • Not sure the traditional approach works here because $F$ appears twice, with opposite variances. – Zhen Lin Jan 29 '25 at 08:20
  • Dear @MartinBrandenburg, to apply the Grothendieck spectral sequence, one has to check that the inclusion functor $\mathcal{A}\to \mathcal{B}$ sends injective objects of $\mathcal{A}$ to objects that are right acyclic for the functor $\mathrm{Hom}_{\mathcal{B}}(X,-):\mathcal{B}\to \mathrm{Ab}$. Right? – Doug Mar 30 '25 at 13:47