This should just be a quick clarification, but I couldn't find a clear answer on the MSE or elsewhere online.
It is clear that if $X\sim Beta(\alpha,\beta)$, then $X$ we can write the pdf of $X|\theta$ as
$$f(x|\theta) = g(\theta)h(x)exp[\eta(\theta)\cdot t(x)]$$ with $g(\theta) = \frac{1}{B(\alpha,\beta)}, h(x)=1, \eta(\theta)=(\alpha-1,\beta-1)^T$, and $t(x) = (ln(x), ln(1-x))^T$. We also know that the support of $X$, $(0,1)$, does not depend on the vector of parameters. Thus, $X$ belongs to the exponential family.
It is also clear that in general if $Y \sim U(0,\theta)$, then the support of $Y$ depends on the parameter $\theta$, and thus $Y$ cannot belong to the exponential family.
But in the case that $Y \sim U(0,1)$, then this is just a special case of the beta distribution with $\alpha = \beta = 1$. This seems to indicate to me that the standard uniform should be contained in the exponential family, despite the fact that the general uniform is not.
Is my intuition correct here? Should we instead say that $Y \sim U(0,\theta)$ does not belong to the exponential family for $\theta \neq 1$?