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The way category theory was introduced to me is by defining categories as a class of objects together with a class of morphisms between any two objects, with an asociative composition map and identity morphisms for each object.

The reason given for using classes is that "for set theoretic reasons they cannot be sets". But since classes are also well defined objects in some set theories, where in particular proper classes exist and cannot be contained in any object, this seems a bit restrictive on the possible applications of category theory.

Is it not more useful to leave what the collections of objects and morphisms are purposefully vague, such that everything with categorical behaviour can be classified as a category? In particular the category with all classes as objects and functional classes as morphisms obviously behaves categorically but is not, under the set theoretic definition, a category.

As a secondary question, while it makes sense to link a locally small categories together through the category of sets with representations and Hom-set adjunctions, it again feels restrictive to require a bijective map to a specific category. Is it possible to define representability and Hom-[some different category] adjunction in a way that works for all categories, instead of just locally small categories?

More generally: which properties of locally small categories can be generalised to all categories by omitting the specific choice of Set as a category?

jucom
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    It depends on which version of set theory you're looking at. Which one? Some only have sets, some define sets as classes that are elements of a class, some have sets and classes and distinguish a set from a class with the same extension, etc. It sounds like you have a three-tier system in mind. I'm not sure that's standard in category theory, whose equivalents of sets and proper classes are small and large categories (not that a category is really the same thing as a set, mind). – J.G. Jan 05 '25 at 12:52
  • Have you tried reading a proper self-contained introduction to set theory, rather than the handwaving most authors resort to? – Zhen Lin Jan 05 '25 at 13:07
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    Classes are allowed to have parameters in the definition. – Asaf Karagila Jan 05 '25 at 13:08
  • @AsafKaragila thank you, then the explanation i saw is incomplete, with parameters sets are obviously classes. I will edit the original question from "why is a set always a class?" to what i was actually looking for. – jucom Jan 05 '25 at 16:45
  • @ZhenLin i've had an introduction to ZFC as part of a mathematical logic course, but of course that leaves classes undefined. Do you have good sources on set theory (preferably free or on springerlink)? – jucom Jan 05 '25 at 16:47
  • @J.G. the problem is that i don't know which version of set theory is used for my intro to category theory. I learned ZFC, where classes are mainly just notational convenience rather than well defined objects, but then they are used in the definition of categories with "it is important they are not sets" given as a handwavy justification. Intuitively I have sets as well defined elements of a model of ZFC, then classes as collections of elements satisfying a given formula in set language, and then naive sets as just "collections of stuff" that are unambiguous in what they contain. – jucom Jan 05 '25 at 16:57
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    It is better if you don't massively change a question like that, and instead ask a new one. Duplicates happen, it's fine. But it's not like the database is full and you can't ask any new questions. – Asaf Karagila Jan 05 '25 at 19:02
  • Duplicate question for sure, but the current linked duplicate doesn't answer all the questions. For example, "Is it possible to define representability and Hom-[some different category] adjunction in a way that works for all categories, instead of just locally small categories?" --- Yes, just work with the hypercategory of all collections, Yoneda etc. then works for all categories. By the way you should not use classes to formalize category theory, since classes are not flexible enough, it is better to use Grothendieck universes. I am currently working on a paper answering all these ... 1/2 – Martin Brandenburg Jan 05 '25 at 19:32
  • ... recurring questions. But in the meantime you can use use site search to find many more good answers about set theoretic foundations of category theory. I also highly recommend doing this before answering another question to prevent duplicates. Also, try to focus on one question per post (this is one of the site guidelines). Splitting makes it also more likely to get an answer (and a detailed one, in particular) for every question. 2/2 – Martin Brandenburg Jan 05 '25 at 19:33
  • " In particular the category with all classes as objects and functional classes as morphisms obviously behaves categorically but is not, under the set theoretic definition, a category." - Exactly. But when working with Grothendieck universes there is no problem to define the hypercategory of all categories. – Martin Brandenburg Jan 05 '25 at 19:38
  • "I don't know which version of set theory is used for my intro to category theory" <--- There is a good chance that even the instructor doesn't know or care. :) – Martin Brandenburg Jan 05 '25 at 19:54
  • @AsafKaragila ah thank you i didn't know – jucom Jan 05 '25 at 20:26
  • @MartinBrandenburg I was not expecting this concise of an answer! I'll look into Grotendieck universes for sure. Thank you for the advice on how to use the site (I was thinking to avoid spam but it is in hindsight of course more logical to have as many keywords be associated to the actual questions people are looking for rather than have a duplicate in some random massive question). – jucom Jan 05 '25 at 20:32
  • I don't see how the proposed duplicate is a duplicate. It hints at a way to resolve this question, but from my reading of the question a good answer would explain why you really need universes and such (e.g. to talk about the category of categories), and that's not addressed by the linked question at all. – N. Virgo Jan 08 '25 at 00:43
  • Oh I see, it's because it was a duplicate of an old version of the question. But then I guess the close reason has been resolved. – N. Virgo Jan 08 '25 at 00:45

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