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Reading the Wikipedia page, I’m trying to understand where the two Lucas sequences $U_n(P, Q)$ and $V_n(P, Q)$ come from. The page starts off with

$$f_n=Pf_{n-1}-Qf_{n-2}$$

The characteristic equation is easy enough to find (my personal favorite way).

$$x^2-Px+Q=0$$

The roots of this equation are: $$\alpha = \frac{P+\sqrt{D}}{2} \quad \beta = \frac{P - \sqrt{D}}{2}, \qquad \text{where } D = P^2 - 4Q$$

Thus any form of $C_1\alpha^n+C_2\beta^n$ satisfy the recurrence. What's so special about $U_n(P, Q)$ and $V_n(P, Q)$? The page also annoyingly says "one quickly verifies" the following:

$$\alpha^n = \frac{V_n + U_n \sqrt{D}}{2}, \quad \beta^n = \frac{V_n - U_n \sqrt{D}}{2}$$

But still both of those can be substituted out for other variants. However, it seems that these two definitions allow for a bunch of important things.

What I’m confused about is:

  1. How do $U_n$ and $V_n$ arise naturally from the recurrence relation?
  2. Why are their initial conditions typically taken as $U_0 = 0$, $U_1 = 1$, $V_0 = 2$, and $V_1 = P$?
  3. Can they be derived directly without first assuming their existence?

In short, I’d like to understand the logic or motivation behind the construction of $U_n$ and $V_n$ and how they connect to the recurrence beyond being “predefined” sequences.


Edit: I would like to revisit @CyeWaldman's interesting point about representing $f_n$ in the following form: $$f_n=f_0\color{blue}{S_n}+f_1\color{blue}{T_n}\tag{1}$$ From calculations, it turns out $\color{blue}{T_n}=U_n$; somehow, I initially miscalculated $\color{blue}{S_n}=V_n$, accepted the answer, and proceeded to find properties of $U_n$ and $V_n$ given by $\rm eq. (1)$. However, it turned out $\color{blue}{S_n}$ actually was $$\color{blue}{S_n}=\frac{\alpha\beta^n-\alpha^n\beta}{\alpha-\beta}$$ Does the representation $\rm eq. (1)$ give straightforward properties that makes $U_n$ and $V_n$ interesting? Is $S_n$ important or does it have interesting properties/identities?

sreysus
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  • One motivation is that $U_n$ and $V_n$ are analogous to sine and cosine functions. – Somos Dec 30 '24 at 16:24
  • They are just a convenient basis for solutions of the recurrence $z_{n+2} = P z_{n+1} - Q z_n$. You could use other bases, but this particular basis turns out to have many nice properties. They are, of course, a generalization of the Fibonacci and Lucas numbers, and that's why the name "Lucas" is attached to them. – Robert Israel Dec 30 '24 at 16:30
  • The first page of the reference Lehmer, D. H. (1930). "An extended theory of Lucas' functions"... from that Wikipedia page indicates how to get $U_n$ and $V_n$ from the roots and gives a reference for the source of that method (probably the Lucas reference, but I haven't dived further). And if you're thinking "why would I want $a^n + b^n$?", this is the form of the solution of the Fibonacci recurrence... – Eric Towers Dec 30 '24 at 16:38
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    @Somos How is this the case? Sine and cosine arise naturally as the only choices from converting from polar coordinates to Cartesian ones, whereas the choice for $U_n$ and $V_n$ seems more ambiguous, with two degrees of freedom for their choices, $C_1$ and $C_2$ in the post – sreysus Dec 30 '24 at 18:41
  • @RobertIsrael, that is my question: what in the structure of recurrence relations makes the choice of $U_n$ and $V_n$ so natural [or not]? Is there something inherent in the recurrence relation structure (e.g., the characteristic equation) that compels us to define $U_n$ and $V_n$ as they are? Or is it purely historical? But it surely can't be as this is a definition, and a definition should encapsulate its uniqueness (and thus how useful it may be) – sreysus Dec 30 '24 at 18:41
  • You missed the fact that sine is an odd function and cosine is an even function. Among all solutions to the recurrence, the purely even and odd solutions are unique up to a scale factor which is easily normalized. (Assuming $Q=1$ otherwise there is an correction for $Q^n$). – Somos Dec 31 '24 at 00:59
  • @Somos, sorry for the late response, but this is interesting. Can you clarify what you mean when you say odd and even recurrences? – sreysus Jan 08 '25 at 12:41
  • Read even and odd functions. Not "odd and even recurrences". – Somos Jan 08 '25 at 16:05

1 Answers1

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I find the Wikipedia reference to be somewhat strange, insofar as $a^n,b^n$ are defined i.t.o. $U_n,V_n$ and $U_n,V_n$ are defined i.t.o. $a^n,b^n$. This is circular and of no help.

However, I can explain what you looking for in terms of a general second-order linear recurrence as follows. I have written frequently on these pages of the general solution to the sequence $f_n=af_{n-1}+bf_{n-2}$, with arbitrary initial conditions, $f_{0,1}$. See, for example, here.

The general solution can be expressed as

$$ f_n=\left(f_1-\frac{af_0}{2}\right) \frac{\alpha^n-\beta^n}{\alpha-\beta}+\frac{f_0}{2} (\alpha^n+\beta^n) $$

where $\alpha,\beta=(a\pm\sqrt{a^2+4b})/2$.

This can also be expressed as

$$ f_n=\left(f_1-\frac{af_0}{2}\right)F_n+\frac{af_0}{2}L_n $$

where

$$ F_n=\frac{\alpha^n-\beta^n}{\alpha-\beta},\quad L_n=\frac{\alpha^n+\beta^n}{\alpha+\beta} $$

I call these the Fibonacci- and Lucas-type terms because they give the sequences of those names when $a,b=1$ and the appropriate initial conditions are specified.

Ergo,

$$ (\alpha-\beta)F_n=\alpha^n-\beta^n\\ (\alpha+\beta)L_n=\alpha^n+\beta^n $$

Adding and subtracting these equations we find that

$$ \alpha^n=\bigg(\frac{(\alpha-\beta)F_n+(\alpha+\beta)L_n}{2}\bigg)\\ \beta^n=\bigg(\frac{(\alpha-\beta)F_n-(\alpha+\beta)L_n}{2}\bigg) $$

I think you should be able to take it from here. The relation between $F_n,L_n$ and $U_n,V_n$ should be clear.

Cye Waldman
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  • This is exactly what I need! From what I knew ($f_n=C_1\alpha^n+C_2\beta^n$), I took painstaking expansion of the first line to verify, with $f_0=C_1+C_2$ and $f_1=C_1\alpha+C_2\beta$, converting $a=P=\alpha+\beta$ (switching between my notation and yours). Then, from the general solution, the line $f_n=f_1F_n+f_0L_n$ magically popped up—with a different mess of variables of course. Anyway, it totally worked! The second line is what answers my question the most (it holds for $U_n$ and $V_n$). I'll stick in an edit suggestion so another fellow may stumble upon this and not leave from confusion. – sreysus Dec 30 '24 at 22:43
  • An upvote wouldn't hurt. Thanks! – Cye Waldman Dec 30 '24 at 22:45
  • It seems that the moderators rejected my edit for swaying too far away from the original answer. Moreover, I think the latest edit you've made removed the part of the answer that I was looking for: $f_n=f_0L_n+f_1F_n$, which really was $f_n=f_0U_n+f_1V_n$ in my context. I thought that line demonstrated the specialty of $U_n$ and $V_n$ the most. Also, your definition of $L_n$ is not the usual one, where $L_n=\alpha^n+\beta^n$ – sreysus Dec 31 '24 at 15:19
  • Sorry about that incorrect equation, I was looking at something else. The definition of $L_n$ is consistent when you realize that $\alpha+\beta=1$ for the Fibonacci & Lucas sequences. I use a more general definition to accommodate all other cases. – Cye Waldman Dec 31 '24 at 15:48
  • That's okay! I think the better generalization might be $U_n$ and $V_n$ instead of your $F_n$ and $L_n$, respectively. Also, can you also take a look at my edit that was rejected yesterday and see if you could incorporate any of those ideas, as I believed that helped answer the question better, surrounding the equation $f_n=f_1U_n+f_0V_n$ (sorry my previous comment switched up $U_n$ and $V_n$; this should be correct). – sreysus Dec 31 '24 at 15:59
  • In terms of my equations, the form you are looking for entails splitting the initial conditions so that you end up with $f_n=f_1F_n+f_0(a/2)(L_n-F_n)$. – Cye Waldman Dec 31 '24 at 16:49