For context, I’m a high schooler self-studying real analysis. Is my proof that the Cesaro mean sequence, $C_{n}:=\frac{x_{1}+...+x_{n}}{n}$, converges to $a$ if $x_{n}$ converges to the same value correct?
Proof: From the assumption that $x_{n} \to a$, we can conclude that there exists an $N \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ for each $\epsilon \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$, such that $|x_{n}-a|<\epsilon$, for $n\ge N$. We want to show that there exists an $N \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ for each $\epsilon \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$, such that $|C_{n}-a|<\epsilon$, for $n\ge N$. Since $C_{n}$ is the mean of values from $x_{n}$, there does not exist any $n$ for which $C_{n}>\max_{n\in \mathbb{Z}^{+}} \{x_{n}\}$. Then for large $n$, we have that $|C_{n}-a|<|x_{n}-a|<\epsilon$, which implies that $|C_{n}-a|<\epsilon$, as desired.
I’m mostly worried that my proof skips over steps, or is based on a faulty premise. Please be as nit-picky as you deem appropriate!