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If we have the sum of two binomial coefficients,

$$\sum_{k=0}^{r}\binom m k\binom{ n-m}{ r-k} = \binom n r$$

We can use vandermonde's identity to prove this. The result is the familiar hypergeometric distribution.

Now, what I was wondering is if this formula:

$$\sum_{m=0}^{n}\binom m k\binom{ n-m}{ r-k}$$

has some general solution.

Andrew
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  • The first has a simpler argument, based on just counting. I can't see a similar counting meaning in the second, but that doesn't mean it doesn't have,a closed form. – Thomas Andrews Dec 18 '24 at 11:19
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    https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/504335/proving-sum-k-0n-k-choose-a-n-k-choose-b-n1-choose-ab1?noredirect=1&lq=1 – Michal Adamaszek Dec 18 '24 at 12:31

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