In this answer, it is mentioned that $$X^{n-1} \cong (X^{n-1} \sqcup_\alpha \partial D^n_\alpha) / (x \sim \varphi_\alpha(x))$$ where $\varphi_\alpha: \partial D^n_\alpha \rightarrow X^{n-1}$ is the attaching map.
To show this, i.e. that $X^{n-1}$ is homeomorphic to $X^{n-1} = (X^{n-1} \sqcup_\alpha \partial D^n_\alpha) / (x \sim \varphi_\alpha(x))$, we can use the result of induced homeomorphism by quotient map. This result is detailed in Corollary 22.3 of Munkres's book on Topology or here.
Specifically, it needs to be shown that $f: X^{n-1}\sqcup_\alpha \partial D^n_\alpha \rightarrow X^{n-1}$ defined as $$f(x) = \begin{cases} x_1 & (x_2 = 0)\\ \varphi_\alpha(x_1) & (x_2 = \alpha) \end{cases}$$ is a quotient map.
- Starting with continuity, this follows from the pasting lemma. To see this, note that $\varphi_\alpha$ is continuous and $(X^{n-1}, 0)$ as well as $(D^n_\alpha, \alpha)$ are open by definition of the disjoint union topology.
- Continuing with surjectivity, this is trivial as all of $X^{n-1}$ are mapped to $X^{n-1}$.
- Finally, with proving that f should be an open map, I am completely lost. This is because I don't see how it is possibly an open map because $\varphi_{\alpha}$ is not necessarily open.
Could I please get some help?