I am in the middle of reading a proof.
So far I have a group $G$ of order $q^2p^2$, both prime. I have two Sylow $q$-subgroups $Q_1$ and $Q_2$ both of order $q^2$. I know $Q_1\cap Q_2\neq \{e\}$, $|\langle Q_1, Q_2\rangle| = q^2p$. So, $[G:\langle Q_1, Q_2 \rangle ] = p$.
Apparently, I immediately know I have a homomorphism $\varphi: G \rightarrow S_p$? And its kernel is nontrivial?
The rest of the details are left out and I am having lots of trouble understanding how we know that's the case (and it's so easy that it's just completely left out). Thank you so much!