Quite a bit of research has been done on the question of whether certain infinite series - consisting of rational summands - amount to irrational numbers. Examples include this article by Erdős (1975, PDF), this one by Badea (1987), this paper by Tachiya (2004), and finally an article by Borwein (2008).
I am curious about a different case, where one considers infinite series of irrational summands. Can one establish any criteria or conditions for the (ir)rationality of such sums?
The following MSE question considers infinite sums of irrational numbers that amount to a rational number. Examples include
$$\tan \left( \frac{\pi}4 \right)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n 2^{2n+2}(2^{2n+2}-1)B_{2n+2}}{(2n+2)!}\left(\frac{\pi}4\right)^{2n+1}=1 \tag{1}\label{1}$$
and, as I describe in my answer through a rational zeta series:
$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(\zeta(2n)-1 \right) = \frac{3}{4}. \tag{2}\label{2}$$
Please note that we consider infinite series here, not finite sums of irrational numbers.
My question is:
Are there any results and resources in the literature on establishing conditions or criteria for the (ir)rationality of infinite series consisting of irrational summands?