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I am trying to find a closed approximation of partial reciprocal sum of squared primes, $ \sum_{p \leq n} \frac{1}{p^2} $.

As far as I know, approximation of $ \sum_{p \leq n} \frac{1}{p} $ is well-known, and it can be approximated to $ \sum_{k=2}^{n} \frac{1}{k \log(k)}$ or $ \int_{2}^{n} \frac{dx}{x \log(x)}$. I also know that $\sum \frac{1}{p} $ diverges and $ \sum \frac{1}{p^2} $ converges.

However, I could not find nor derive an approximation of partial reciprocal sum of squared primes.

Is there anyone who knows what an approximated form of $ \sum_{p \leq n} \frac{1}{p^2} $ is?

Below here is my approach to the approximation, and I think there might be several mistakes.

$$ \begin{aligned} \sum_{p \leq n} \frac{1}{p^2} &= \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{\pi(k^2)-\pi(k^2-1)}{k^2} \\ &= \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{\pi(k^2)}{k^2} - \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{\pi(k^2)}{k^2+1} \\ &= \frac{\pi(n^2)}{n^2} + \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{\pi(k^2)}{k^2(k^2+1)} \\ &= \frac{\pi(n^2)}{n^2} + \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{\pi(k^2)}{k^3} - \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{\pi(k^2)}{k^2(k^2+1)} \\ &\approx \frac{1}{\log^2(n)} + \sum_{k=2}^{n-1} \frac{1}{k\cdot \log^2(k)} - \sum_{k=2}^{n-1} \frac{1}{(k^2+1) \cdot \log^2(k)} \\ &\approx \sum_{k=2}^{n-1} \frac{1}{k\cdot \log^2(k)} \\ &\approx \int_{2}^{n} \frac{dx}{x\cdot \log^2(x)} \end{aligned} $$

Here, I guess I made a mistake in the fourth line or later, but I do not know why it is a mistake.

Please let me know which part of my steps should be corrected.

30412
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  • $\sum \frac{1}{p} = \frac{\pi ^2}{6}$? – jjagmath Oct 30 '24 at 02:35
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    Write it as $\sum_{p \ge 2} {\frac{1}{{p^2 }}} - \sum_{p \ge n + 1} {\frac{1}{{p^2 }}} $ and approximate the second sum instead. The first sum is convergent. – Gary Oct 30 '24 at 02:46
  • @jjagmath Oh, my bad. $\sum \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ and it seems that is irrelevant to the original question. Thank you for letting me know. – 30412 Oct 30 '24 at 03:25

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