Let $I \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ and $f_n : I \to \mathbb{R}$ be a sequence of continuous functions. Let $a \in \mathbb{R}$ and define:
$$ A = \{ x \in I : \limsup \limits_{n \to \infty} |f_n(x)| \leq a\}$$
I'm a bit confused about how can I write the set $A$ as unions and intersections of sets. For instance, I know that: $$ \limsup \limits_{n \to \infty} |f_n(x)| = \inf_{j \in \mathbb{N}} \sup_{n \geq j} |f_n(x)|$$ And I've studied that this implies:
\begin{equation} A = \bigcap_{j \in \mathbb{N}} \bigcup_{n=j}^{\infty} \{ x \in I : |f_n(x)| \leq a\} ... (1) \end{equation} (I understand the reason for this equality in terms of set inequalities with $\subseteq$ as partial order).
But why couldn't it be the other way around?, I mean, Why couldn't we have: $$ A = \bigcup_{j \in \mathbb{N}} \bigcap_{n=j}^{\infty} \{ x \in I : |f_n(x)| \leq a\}$$
I'm asking this because if one thinks of a sequence of functions $F_n: I \to \mathbb{R}$ and if we consider the set: $$ B = \{ x \in I : \inf_{n \in \mathbb{N}}|F_n(x)| \leq a \}$$
Then by the definition of infimum we have that $x \in B$ if and only if there exists some $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $|F_N(x)| \leq a$, so:
$$ B = \bigcup_{n=1}^{\infty} \{ x \in I : |F_n(x) | \leq a \}$$
Thus, couldn't the infimum be represented in (1) as the union of sets instead of the intersection?