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Let $D(X)$ denote the free bounded distributive lattice on a set $X$. Let $x_0 \in X$ be a chosen generator.

In the paper Recursive formulas on free distributive lattices (1968) by N. M. Reviere it is claimed without proof that every element $u \in D(X)$ has the decomposition $$u = \bigl(x_0 \wedge l(u)\bigr) \vee k(u) \quad (\ast)$$ where the two lattice homomorphisms $l,k : D(X) \to D(X \setminus x_0)$ are defined by $l(x)=k(x)=x$ for $x \in X \setminus x_0$ and $l(x_0)=1$, $k(x_0)=0$. The notation in the paper is a bit different, but it's the same meaning. It follows that every element has a unique decomposition $(x_0 \wedge b) \vee a$ with $a,b \in D(X \setminus x_0)$ and $a \leq b$.

I don't know how to prove this. Of course $(\ast)$ is true when $u \in D(X \setminus x_0)$. To prove it in general, I tried to write $u = u_1 \wedge u_2$ (likewise, $u_1 \vee u_2$) and assume that the claim is true for $u_1,u_2$. But when I calculcate both sides of $(\ast)$, it just doesn't fit. Abstractly, this is because a priori the right hand side of $(\ast)$ is not homomorphic in $u$. I am sure there is an easy way to fix this, but I just do not see it.

I have already verified the claim by hand for the free distributive lattice on three generators $x_0,x_1,x_2$ (which has $20$ elements, see here), also because I couldn't really believe that such a simple decomposition is valid for all elements*. A nice example here is $$u := (x_0 \wedge x_1) \vee (x_0 \wedge x_2) \vee (x_1 \wedge x_2),$$ for which we find $l(u) = x_1 \vee x_2$, $k(u) = x_1 \wedge x_2$, and in fact $$u = (x_0 \wedge (x_1 \vee x_2)) \vee (x_1 \wedge x_2)$$ holds because of the distributive law applied to the first two components of $u$.

*Also, because the number of elements of $D([9])$ has only been computed last year in 2023 (see here), and the number of elements of $D([10])$ is still unknown.

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    I didn't look into it with detail, but it seems one can prove (it is claimed in the paper, and it seems reasonable) that $k(u)\leq u\leq l(u)$. Using that, your tentative of proving by induction on the size of the term should follow (I just did it for $u_1 \wedge u_2$, and I suppose the other case is similar). – amrsa Oct 15 '24 at 17:31

1 Answers1

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I got it already.

Assume first $u = u_1 \vee u_2$ and the claim holds for $u_1,u_2$. Then

$$\begin{align*} u & = u_1 \vee u_2 \\ & = (x_0 \wedge l(u_1)) \vee k(u_1) \vee (x_0 \wedge l(u_2)) \vee k(u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \wedge l(u_1)) \vee (x_0 \wedge l(u_2)) \vee k(u_1) \vee k(u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \wedge (l(u_1) \vee l(u_2))) \vee k(u_1) \vee k(u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \wedge (l(u_1 \vee u_2)) \vee k(u_1 \vee u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \wedge l(u)) \vee k(u). ~ \checkmark\end{align*}$$

Now, the case $u = u_1 \wedge u_2$ becomes exactly the same if we prove a different formula, namely

$$u = (x_0 \vee k(u)) \wedge l(u) \quad (\ast')$$

This is the same expresion since

$$(x_0 \vee k(u)) \wedge l(u) = (x_0 \wedge l(u)) \vee (k(u) \wedge l(u)) = (x_0 \wedge l(u)) \vee k(u),$$

using $k(u) \leq l(u)$. So we can literally just copy paste the proof, exchange $\vee$ with $\wedge$, and $k$ with $l$.

So assume $u = u_1 \wedge u_2$ and the claim is true for $u_1,u_2$. Then

$$\begin{align*} u & = u_1 \wedge u_2 \\ & = (x_0 \vee k(u_1)) \wedge l(u_1) \wedge (x_0 \vee k(u_2)) \wedge l(u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \vee k(u_1)) \wedge (x_0 \vee k(u_2)) \wedge l(u_1) \wedge l(u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \vee (k(u_1) \wedge k(u_2))) \wedge l(u_1) \wedge l(u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \vee (k(u_1 \wedge u_2)) \wedge l(u_1 \wedge u_2) \\ & = (x_0 \vee k(u)) \wedge l(u). ~ \checkmark\end{align*}$$

PS: This is why I have asked this question.