1

I have read everything in Folland's real analysis book up to Proposition 1.23, but I have a very hard time understanding this proposition and what immediately precedes it using the set theory introduced by the author. I'm paraphrasing now:

Consider a set $X$ and family of sets $\mathcal E\subset\mathcal P(X)$. Let $\mathcal E_1=\mathcal{E}\cup\{E^c:E\in\mathcal E\}$ and then for $j>1$ define $\mathcal E_j$ to be the collection of all sets that are countable unions of sets in $\mathcal E_{j-1}$ or complements of such. Let $\mathcal E_\omega=\bigcup_1^\infty\mathcal E_j$. If $E\in \mathcal E_\omega$, it is in one of the $\mathcal E_j$'s, but then $E^c\in\mathcal E_{j+1}$, so $E^c\in\mathcal E_\omega$. Apparently the set is not closed under countable unions. The claim is that if $E_j\in\mathcal E_j\setminus\mathcal E_{j-1}$ for each $j$, there's no reason for $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j$ to be in $\mathcal E_\omega$.

  1. My first question is, why not? Is there an easy-to-understand counterexample for when $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j\notin\mathcal E_\omega$?

The author goes on to say one must start all over again and define $\mathcal E_\alpha$ for each countable ordinal $\alpha$ by transfinite induction: If $\alpha$ has an immediate predecessor $\beta$, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is the collection of sets that are countable unions of sets in $\mathcal E_\beta$ or complements of such; otherwise, $\mathcal E_\alpha=\bigcup_{\beta<\alpha}\mathcal E_\beta$.

  1. The author hasn't really defined what a countable ordinal is nor what a predecessor is (or if there isn't a predecessor). I gather a countable ordinal is an initial segment of $\Omega$, the set of countable ordinals, but I'm not sure what he means by predecessor (or if there isn't one). Moreover, where in defining $\mathcal E_\alpha$ did we use transfinite induction? Transfinite induction has barely been used in the book so far, so I'm sorry if I don't see this immediately.

Finally,

1.23 Proposition. $\mathcal M(\mathcal E)=\bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega} \mathcal E_\alpha$ where $\mathcal M(\mathcal E)$ is the $\sigma$-algebra generated by $\mathcal E$.

Proof. Transfinite induction shows that $\mathcal E_\alpha\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$ for all $\alpha\in\Omega$, and hence $\bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega} \mathcal E_\alpha\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$. The reverse inclusion follows from the fact that any sequence in $\Omega$ has a supremum in $\Omega$ (Proposition 0.19): If $E_j\in\mathcal E_{\alpha_j}$ for $j\in\mathbb N$ and $\alpha=\sup\{a_j\}$, then $E_j\in\mathcal E_\alpha$ for all $j$ and hence $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j\in\mathcal E_\beta$ where $\beta$ is the successor of $\alpha$.

  1. How does it follow from transfinite induction that $\mathcal E_\alpha\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$ for all $\alpha\in\Omega$? Why is $E_j\in\mathcal E_\alpha$ for all $j$ and why does it follow that $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j\in\mathcal E_\beta$? What's the definition of a successor?

For reference, here's the statement of transfinite induction in the book. Let $X$ be a well ordered set and $x\in X$, then $I_x=\{y\in X:y<x\}$ is an initial segment of $x$.

0.15 The Principle of Transfinite Induction. Let $X$ be a well ordered set. If $A$ is a subset of $X$ such that $x\in A$ whenever $I_x\subset A$, then $A=X$.

psie
  • 1,464
  • The proposition 1.23 is in the section "1.6 NOTES AND REFERENCES". For each chapter, there is a section " NOTES AND REFERENCES" with more advanced comments / results that may rely in more advanced material not (yet) presented or fully developed in the book. – Ramiro Oct 06 '24 at 18:19
  • @Ramiro I understand that not everything can be presented in the book. However, Proposition 1.23 is referred to in the text prior to that section too, so I'd like to understand it. If you feel like you can answer my questions, then I'd be very grateful. – psie Oct 06 '24 at 18:48

1 Answers1

1

For your question 1: Suppose $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j \in \mathcal E_\omega$. Since $\mathcal E_\omega=\bigcup_1^\infty\mathcal E_j$, there should be a $j_0$ such that $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j \in \mathcal E_{j_0}$, but $E_{j_0+1} \in \mathcal E_{j_0+1} \setminus \mathcal E_{j_0}$, it means $E_{j_0+1} \notin \mathcal E_{j_0}$, so, in the general case, we will have $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j \notin \mathcal E_{j_0}$. Contradiction. So, in the general case, $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j \notin \mathcal E_\omega$.

Remark 1: In a special situation, with additional conditions, one could have $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j \in \mathcal E_\omega$, but not in the general case.

Remark 2: My response to question 1 is an explanation of the argument written in Folland's book. Folland does not proivide an actual counterexample to illustrate his argument, although, of course, such counterexamples exist.

For your question 2. A countable ordinal corresponds to countable well-ordered set. To say that an ordinal $\alpha$ has an immediate predecessor means that there is an ordinal $\beta$ such that $\alpha=\beta+1$. If an ordinal has an immediate predecessor is call a successor ordinal. There are ordinals that has not an immediate predecessor, they are not successor ordinals. For instance $0$ and $\omega$ (which corresponds to $\Bbb N$ with the usual order). If an ordinal, other than $0$, is not a successor ordinal, it is called a limit ordinal. So $\omega$ is the first limit ordinal.

Transfinite Induction is used in defining that: If $\alpha$ has an immediate predecessor $\beta$, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is the collection of sets that are countable unions of sets in $\mathcal E_\beta$ or complements of such; otherwise, $\mathcal E_\alpha=\bigcup_{\beta<\alpha}\mathcal E_\beta$. We need Transfinite induction to prove that $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is defined for all ordinals.

Remark: Proving that $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is defined for all ordinals.

  1. For $\alpha =0$, $\mathcal E_0$ is defined. In fact, $\mathcal E_0=\mathcal{E}\cup\{E^c:E\in\mathcal E\}$.

  2. Given an ordinal $\alpha$, suppose we already know that $\mathcal E_\beta$ is defined, for all $\beta < \alpha$.

2.a. if $\alpha$ is a sucessor ordinal, there is an ordinal $\beta < \alpha$ such that $\alpha = \beta+1$. So, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is the collection of sets that are countable unions of sets in $\mathcal E_\beta$ or complements of such. So, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is defined.

2.b. if $\alpha$ is a limit ordinal, $\mathcal E_\alpha=\bigcup_{\beta<\alpha}\mathcal E_\beta$. So, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is defined.

So, by Transfinite Induction, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is define for all ordinals.

For your question 3: Proving that $\mathcal E_\alpha\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$ for all $\alpha\in\Omega$ by Transfinite Induction.

  1. Note that $\mathcal E_0=\mathcal{E}\cup\{E^c:E\in\mathcal E\}\in M(\mathcal E)$

  2. Given an ordinal $\alpha$, suppose we already know that $\mathcal E_\beta\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$ for all $\beta < \alpha$.

2.a. if $\alpha$ is a sucessor ordinal, there is an ordinal $\beta < \alpha$ such that $\alpha = \beta+1$. So, $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is the collection of sets that are countable unions of sets in $\mathcal E_\beta$ or complements of such. Since $\mathcal E_\beta\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$, it follows immediately that $\mathcal E_\alpha\subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$.

2.b. if $\alpha$ is a limit ordinal, $\mathcal E_\alpha=\bigcup_{\beta<\alpha}\mathcal E_\beta \subset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$.

So the proof is complete.

You also asked: why is $E_j\in\mathcal E_\alpha$ for all $j$ and why does it follow that $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j\in\mathcal E_\beta$? The answer to this in in proposition 0.19. Any countable set of countable ordinals has a supremum and it is a countable ordinal.

Here are more details: Using such property, we can prove that $\bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$ is a $\sigma$-algebra.

  1. Even if $\emptyset \notin \mathcal E_0$, we have that $\emptyset \in \mathcal E_1 \subset \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$.

  2. If $E \in \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$, then there is $\alpha_0 \in \Omega$ such that $E \in \mathcal E_{\alpha_0}$. So $E^c \in \mathcal E_{\alpha_0+1} \subset \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$.

  3. If $\{E_i\}_{i=1}^\infty$ is a countable family of sets such that, for all $i$, $E_i \in \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$, then there are $\alpha_i \in \Omega$ such that $E_i \in \mathcal E_{\alpha_i}$. Since any countable set of countable ordinals has a supremum and it is a countable ordinal, there is a countable ordinal $\beta$, that is an ordinal $\beta \in \Omega$, such that, for all $i$, $\alpha_i \leqslant \beta$. So, for all $i$, $E_i \in \mathcal E_\beta$. So $\bigcup_1^\infty E_i \in \mathcal E_{\beta+1} \subset \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$.

So $\bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$ is $\sigma$-algebra and $\mathcal E \subset \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$. It follows immediately that $\mathcal M(\mathcal E) \subset \bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha$.

Ramiro
  • 19,684
  • Hi @Ramiro. Thanks a lot for your answer. I have some questions:

    (A) In your answer to question 1, you say "in the general case". What do you mean by this?

    (B) Regarding question 2, I fail to see how to prove by transfinite induction that $\mathcal E_\alpha$ is defined for all $\alpha$. How would one do this?

    (C) Regarding question 3, I don't see how Folland concludes $\bigcup_{\alpha\in\Omega}\mathcal E_\alpha \supset \mathcal M(\mathcal E)$ from $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j\in\mathcal E_\beta$. Do you think you could explain how the reverse inclusion follows from Folland's proof?

    – psie Oct 06 '24 at 23:06
  • 1
    @psie , I have edited my answer and added more details to answer your questions (A), (B) and (C). – Ramiro Oct 07 '24 at 02:07
  • 1
    @psie , Please, let me know if you have any further question regarding my answer. – Ramiro Oct 07 '24 at 11:35
  • 1
    Your response to question 1 is not convincing. The fact that $E_{j_0+1}\notin \mathcal{E}{j_0}$ has no bearing on whether $\bigcup_1^\infty E_j\in \mathcal{E}{j_0}$. One should provide an actual counterexample here. These can be tricky to cook up, but there is a general method. See here, for example: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/312786/7062 (@psie) – Alex Kruckman Oct 07 '24 at 14:13
  • @AlexKruckman , My response to question 1 is an explanation of the argument written in Folland's book. Folland does not proivide an actual counterexample to illustrate his argument. – Ramiro Oct 07 '24 at 14:32