If you don't care about solving it exactly, and only care about limiting behavior, you can carry on in the spirit of this question and define
$$E(t)=\frac{1}{2}\int_0^L {u(t,x)}^2\mathrm dx$$
And find
$$\dot{E}(t)=\int_{0}^Lu(t,x)\partial_tu(t,x)\mathrm dx \\ =\int_0^Lu(t,x)\big(\partial_x^2 u(t,x)+f(t)\partial_xu(t,x)\big)\mathrm dx$$
Using integration by parts on the first term and straightforward integration of a derivative on the second, we get
$$\dot{E}(t)=\big(u(t,x)\partial_xu(t,x)\big)\bigg|_{x=0}^{x=L}-\int_{0}^L{\partial_xu(t,x)}^2\mathrm dx+f(t)\big(u(t,x)\big)\bigg|^{x=L}_{x=0}$$
Using the boundary conditions $u(t,0)=0~,~u(t,L)=0$, this gives us
$$\dot{E}(t)=-\int_{0}^L{\partial_xu(t,x)}^2\mathrm dx\leq 0$$
As detailed in the answer of my other question, a mixture of Poincaré's inequality and Grönwall's inequality implies that $E\to 0$ as $t\to\infty$, in other words, the thermal energy inside the rod goes to zero in the long-time limit. In the case of the classical heat equation $f\equiv 0$, this necessarily implies that $u(t,x)\to 0$ as $t\to\infty$ for all $x\in(0,L)$, not just the 2-norm $\Vert u(t,\cdot)\Vert_2\to 0 $ as $t\to\infty$. (I should add that showing this is not trivial, hence the length of the discussion on the other question.)
In this case showing the convergence to $0$ of the 2-norm is not difficult (as I have just demonstrated) but showing the stronger pointwise convergence (i.e $u(t,x)\to 0$ as $t\to\infty$ for all $x\in(0,L)$) would essentially require one to repeat the detailed analysis of my linked answer in the case $f\neq 0$. I suspect that one probably requires certain "nice" properties of $f$, though I don't know what those properties are yet - probably boundedness and a few other things, I don't know.
Hope this helps, for now.
Also, I admit that the actual setting I am interested in has a non-homogeneous forcing term that will definitely keep the function non-zero. But I figured I need to determine how to solve the homogeneous problem first...
– Stig Oct 16 '24 at 14:49