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Here is a remaining part of the question I asked here Showing that a set has measure zero? :

Let $S : [0,1) \to [0,1) $ be the doubling map, $S(x) = 2x \pmod{1}.$ I want to show that $\phi(T(\textbf{x})) = S(\phi(\textbf{x})).$

I am just wondering how can I do this? What is $S(\phi(\textbf{x}))$?

Note that the map $\phi$ is defined as: Consider the map $\phi: X\setminus X_{\infty} \to [0,1)$ defined by $$\phi(a_1, a_2, \dots , a_n) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n2^{-n}$$ so $\phi$ sends each sequence $(a_1, a_2,\dots)$ to the point $x$ in $[0,1)$ with that binary decimal expansion.

I also, want to know how can I use the fact that $S$ is ergodic to prove that $T$ is ergodic?

Any hints for the above two questions will be greatly appreciated.

Here is the general setting of the problem that is given in the link mentioned above:

Consider the probability space $X = \{0,1\}^{\mathbb N}$ of sequences $x = (a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots)$ where each $a_i$ is either $0$ or $1.$ Take $\sigma$ to be the smallest $\sigma$-algebra that contains all cylinder sets $$C(n,A) = \{\textbf{x}| x_n \in A, A \subset \{0,1\}\}$$ that is, those sequences whose $n^{th}$ term belongs to some subset $A$ of $\{0,1\}.$ Let $\mu$ be the measure so that, given a finite collection $A_1, \dots , A_n \subset \{0,1\},$ we have $$\mu (\{\textbf{x} \,|\, x_i \in A_i, i = 1, \dots , n \}) = \Pi_{i=1}^{n}\frac{|A_i|}{2}.$$ Consider the map $\phi: X\setminus X_{\infty} \to [0,1)$ defined by $$\phi(a_1, a_2, \dots , a_n) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n2^{-n}$$ so $\phi$ sends each sequence $(a_1, a_2,\dots)$ to the point $x$ in $[0,1)$ with that binary decimal expansion.We know that $\phi$ is a bijection. We may assume that $\phi$ is measurable with measurable inverse. Also, we know that if $V$ is a measurable subset of $[0,1)$ and if $\lambda$ is Lebesgue measure on $[0,1).$Then $\mu(\phi^{-1}(V)) = \lambda (V).$

Alp Uzman
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Hope
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    You may have more luck with that commutative diagram using AMScd. See https://math.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/27312/how-to-draw-a-commutative-diagram-on-math-stackexchange-com – Eric Towers Oct 01 '24 at 18:02
  • @EricTowers thanks Eric! Will use it :) – Hope Oct 01 '24 at 18:53
  • Sadly, the code can not be used @EricTowers – Hope Oct 01 '24 at 18:58
  • Other than the uspackage typo, other errors prevent me building your diagram, so I can't help you translate it. – Eric Towers Oct 01 '24 at 19:55
  • What are the other errors that prevent you? Can not you just remove my code and put your code in an edit?@EricTowers – Hope Oct 01 '24 at 20:26
  • I edited my code but it still does not work. Can you help me in this @EricTowers – Hope Oct 01 '24 at 20:52
  • When I try to build either your old tikzcd block or the current block in a new LaTeX document, \tikzcd throws a truly astonishing number of errors. My best guess is that \arrow won't take "T" red as an argument. Is there any version of your commutative diagram that builds somewhere (not necessarily here at M.SE.com)? – Eric Towers Oct 01 '24 at 21:23
  • can you just use yours without anything from me? @EricTowers – Hope Oct 01 '24 at 23:09
  • How could I guess what your diagram is supposed to be if I can't get it to compile to look at it? – Eric Towers Oct 01 '24 at 23:10

1 Answers1

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I am just wondering how can I do this? What is $S(\phi(\textbf{x}))$?

For $x$ a sequence, $\phi(x)$ is the real number (one of) whose binary expansion(s) is given by the entries of $x$. $S$ is the doubling map; so

\begin{align*} S(\phi(x))=S(x_1/2+x_2/4+x_3/8+\cdots) &= x_1+x_2/2+x_3/4+\cdots\mod 1 \\ &= x_2/2+x_3/4+\cdots. \end{align*}

I also, want to know how can I use the fact that $S$ is ergodic to prove that $T$ is ergodic?

Hint: Ergodicity is invariant under measure-preserving conjugacies.

Alp Uzman
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  • what do you mean by measure preserving conjugates? – Hope Oct 02 '24 at 10:29
  • @Hope Typically $\phi$ such that $\phi\circ T=S\circ \phi$ and $\mu\circ\phi^{-1}=\lambda$ is called a measure preserving conjugacy. (see also https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4132091/169085) – Alp Uzman Oct 02 '24 at 15:27
  • Do you know a source of a proof for "Ergodicity is invariant under measure preserving conjugacies"? – Hope Oct 20 '24 at 17:43
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    @Hope Most introductory ergodic theory books presumably states or proves this statement; alternatively see my answer at https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4558118/169085 . For ergodic theory references see https://math.stackexchange.com/q/46889/169085 – Alp Uzman Oct 20 '24 at 23:10