Here is the second part of the question I asked here Showing that a set has measure zero?:
Consider the probability space $X = \{0,1\}^{\mathbb N}$ of sequences $x = (a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots)$ where each $a_i$ is either $0$ or $1.$ Take $\sigma$ to be the smallest $\sigma$-algebra that contains all cylinder sets $$C(n,A) = \{\textbf{x}| x_n \in A, A \subset \{0,1\}\}$$ that is, those sequences whose $n^{th}$ term belongs to some subset $A$ of $\{0,1\}.$ Let $\mu$ be the measure so that, given a finite collection $A_1, \dots , A_n \subset \{0,1\},$ we have $$\mu (\{\textbf{x} \,|\, x_i \in A_i, i = 1, \dots , n \}) = \Pi_{i=1}^{n}\frac{|A_i|}{2}.$$ Consider the map $\phi: X\setminus X_{\infty} \to [0,1)$ defined by $$\phi(a_1, a_2, \dots , a_n) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n2^{-n}$$ so $\phi$ sends each sequence $(a_1, a_2,\dots)$ to the point $x$ in $[0,1)$ with that binary decimal expansion. Check that $\phi$ is a bijection. We may assume that $\phi$ is measurable with measurable inverse.
My questions are:
First: To check that it is 1-1: Assume that $\phi(\textbf{x}) = \phi(\textbf{y}) $ then $$\sum_n a_n 2^{-n} = \sum_n b_n 2^{-n}$$ but then how can I conclude that $a_i = b_i$ for every $1\leq i \leq n.$
For being surjective, I think this is immediate. Right?
$X_{\infty}$ definition.
the set $X_{\infty} = \{ (a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots )\,|\,\exists N s.t. \forall n \geq N, a_n = 1 \}$