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looked through this forum and didn't find an understandable solution for this problem, would love your help.

A universal-$\Sigma_\alpha^0$ set $U$ in the Baire space would be a $\Sigma_\alpha^0$-Borel set under $\omega^\omega\times\omega^\omega$, such that for any $\Sigma_\alpha^0$-Borel set B under $\omega^\omega$ there is $e\in\omega^\omega$ such that $B=\{x: (x,e)\in U\}$.

I think I might've not completely understood the second term for a universal set.

In the induction base $\alpha=1$ I constructed an open set of $(x,y) $such that there is an $n$ such that $x(n)=y(n)$.

In the induction step I tried to use the $e$ that coded the universal set $U_\alpha$ to create $U_{\alpha+1}$. Didn't quite get this part and how to execute it, and why exactly it creates a universal $\Sigma_{\alpha+1}^0$ set?

Anyways would like clarifications.

  • Maybe the explanation at this old answer of mine will be helpful: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3124844/given-the-hierarchy-of-borel-sets-how-to-prove-that-bf-sigma-alpha0-sub/3125059#3125059 – Noah Schweber Sep 24 '24 at 22:54

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