A polynomial $f(x)\in \mathbb{Z}_q[x]$ is said to be square-free if it has no repeated roots.
The square-free factorisation of $f$ is
$$f(x)=\prod_{i=1}^k f_i(x)^i,$$ where each $f_i(x)$ is square free polynomial and $\gcd(f_i(x), f_j(x))$ is $1$ for $i\neq j$.
My basic doubt is why exponent $i$ is appearing in the factorisation? Why can't we then say that $f_2(x)^2$ divides $f(x)$ (suppose it is not $1$), which means $f$ is not square free.