IIT JEE (1987) asked for the Induction proof of $$P=\frac{(2n)!}{2^{2n} n!^2} \le \frac{1}{\sqrt{3n+1}}~~~~~~(*)$$ which is commonly available. Upon simplification, we get $$P=\frac{1}{2}. \frac{3}{4}. \frac{5}{6} \frac{7}{8}\dots \frac{2n-1}{2n}.$$ In an attempt to produce a non-induction proof, I use $\frac{a}{b}< \frac{a+x}{b+x}$, if $0<a<b$ and $x > 0.$ So, $P<Q$, if $$Q=\frac{2}{3}.\frac{4}{5}.\frac{6}{7}. \dots \frac{2n}{2n+1}.$$ $$ P^2 \le PQ=\frac{1}{2n+1}.$$ $$\implies P< \frac{1}{\sqrt{2n+1}},$$ which is a weaker result than $(*)$.
The question is: What could be a non induction proof of $(*)$?