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I have been attempting to prove this statement, namely that when one takes $\mathbb{R}$ with the usual topology and glue the integers together, one obtains a sequential space $\mathbb{R}/ \sim$ that is not first countable. This MSE link provides the necessary proof that the space is not first countable. It remains to show that $\mathbb{R} / \sim$.

Let $\mathbb{R}$ have the usual topology and let $\sim$ be an equivalence relation on $\mathbb{R}$ so that

$$x \sim y \iff x =y \,\, \mathrm{or} \, \, x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$$

Let $A \subset \mathbb{R} / \sim$ be a sequentially closed subset. I want to show that $A$ is closed. I can do this by showing that $A^c$ is open. As $A$ is sequentially closed, then if $\{[x_n]\}_{n=1}^\infty$ is a sequence in $A$, and $[x_n] \to [x]$, then $[x] \in A$ as well. As $[x_n] \to [x]$, we mean that

$$\forall \, \mathrm{open} \, \, U, [x] \in U, \exists \, N \in \mathbb{N}, \forall n \geq N, [x_n] \in U$$

Now, we know that since $U$ is $\mathbb{R} / \sim$ - open, then $q^{-1}(U)$ is $\mathbb{R}$-open. And when $n \geq N$, $x_n \in q^{-1}(U)$. I'm tempted to suspect that I can somehow show that $x_n \to x$ and then use $q$ to send this over to $\mathbb{R} / \sim$ and draw a conclusion. Any thoughts?

It would equally suffice if I could prove every quotient of a sequential space is sequential.

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To do this in a hands-on way (but there is actually a straightforward proof quotients of sequential spaces are sequential):

Let $z$ be the collapsed point $q(\Bbb Z)$, $X=q(\Bbb R)$ your quotient space; infinite bouquet of circles. The open subspace $X\setminus\{z\}$ is homeomorphic via $q$ with $\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Z$.

Say $A$ does not contain $z$. I claim $q^{-1}(A)$ is locally bounded away from the integers: for any $n\in\Bbb Z$ there is a $0<\delta_n<1$ so that $(n-\delta,n+\delta)$ never touches $q^{-1}(A)$, for any $n\in\Bbb Z$. Were this not so, allowing $\delta_n=1/m,\,m\in\Bbb N$ and choosing counterexample points $x_m\in A\cap(n-1/m,n+1/m)$, for some fixed $n$, finds a sequence $(q(x_m))_{m\in\Bbb N}$ lying in $A$ convergent (careful! Why do I need $n$ to be fixed?) to $z\notin A$, a contradiction.

So: $q^{-1}(A)\subseteq\bigsqcup_{n\in\Bbb Z}[n+\delta_n,n+1-\delta_{n+1}]$ (viewing those intervals as empty if $\delta_n>1-\delta_{n+1}$ for our somewhat arbitrary choices). $q^{-1}(A)$ is closed in $\Bbb R$ if and only if it is closed in each of these disjoint, isolated closed intervals (why?). But, this is true by the fact each such interval is a sequential space, are $q$-saturated and that $q$ is a topological embedding of these intervals into $X$; $q^{-1}(A)$ intersected with one of these intervals would be sequentially closed in them (the proof is easy to write down without details, but you do need all the adjectives I used), thus closed. Then $\Bbb R\setminus q^{-1}(A)$ is open and contains $\Bbb Z$, so it is an open saturated set; therefore its $q$-image is open, $X\setminus A$ is open, $A$ is closed in $X$.

If $A$ does contain $z$, we must show its complement $U$ is open and as $U\subseteq X\setminus\{z\}$ - which is an open subspace of $X$ - it suffices to show its homeomorph $q^{-1}(U)\subseteq\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Z$ is open in $\Bbb R$, or to show that each $q^{-1}(U)\cap(n,n+1)$ is open. By the same point that $(n,n+1)$ embeds into $X$ and is $q$-saturated, $q^{-1}(A)\cap(n,n+1)$ is sequentially closed in $(n,n+1)$, thus closed (relatively!) so $q^{-1}(U)\cap(n,n+1)$ is open (relatively and globally) as desired.

FShrike
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    Being sequential is preserved by quotients. Suppose $X$ is sequential and $\pi\colon X\to Y$ is a quotient map. Let $U\subseteq Y$ be sequentially open, we want to show it is open. Let $x\in\pi^{-1}(U)$ and $x_n\to x$. Since $\pi$ is continuous, $\pi(x_n)\to\pi(x)$, and since $\pi(x)\in U$ and $U$ is sequentially open, $\pi(x_n)$ is in $U$ for big enough $n$. This means that $x_n$ is eventually in $\pi^{-1}(U)$. This means that $\pi^{-1}(U)$ is sequentially open in $X$ hence open, since $X$ is sequential, which in turn implies that $U$ is open. – Alessandro Codenotti Sep 09 '24 at 08:37
  • (The sledgehammer approach would be to invoke Franklin's characterization of sequential spaces as quotients of metric spaces together with the elementary observation that a quotient of a quotient of $X$ is a quotient of $X$) – Alessandro Codenotti Sep 09 '24 at 08:40
  • Regarding $(\Bbb Q\wedge\Bbb Q)\wedge\Bbb N$ versus \Bbb Q\wedge(\Bbb Q\wedge\Bbb N)$ the reference seems to this paper in German by Puppe, page 336 (page 39 of the pdf), where the example is stated without proof. A reference is given to an exercise in Bourbaki, but the exercise does not seem relevant to me, although the numbering might be different in the english version I'm looking at compared to the French one Puppe is citing – Alessandro Codenotti Sep 09 '24 at 08:54
  • @AlessandroCodenotti Ah, ok. I mistakenly assumed the failure of one of the two versions of $\Bbb Q\wedge\Bbb Q\wedge\Bbb N$ to be sequential was due to quotienting being the issue, but didn't think about it: actually, the issue is that products of sequential spaces need not be sequential. I think I saw a discussion, with proof, of this example on Math Overflow – FShrike Sep 09 '24 at 10:10