I want to prove $\sum_{k=0}^p \binom{m}{k}\binom{n}{p-k} = \binom{m+n}{p}$ for non-negative integers m,n,p. Let above statement be known as $P(m,n,p)$. I want to do induction on $p$ after fixing $m,n$.
Base case is $p=0$. LHS (left hand side) becomes $\sum_{k=0}^0 \binom{m}{k}\binom{n}{0-k} = \binom{m}{0}\binom{n}{0-0} = 1.$ And RHS (right hand side) becomes $\binom{m+n}{0} = 1.$
Hence $P(m,n,0)$ is true.
Now, I assume $P(m,n,p)$ and try to prove $P(m,n,p+1)$. So, $P(m,n,p)$ states
$\sum_{k=0}^p \binom{m}{k}\binom{n}{p-k} = \binom{m+n}{p}\binom{m}{0}\binom{n}{p} + \binom{m}{1}\binom{n}{p-1} + \cdots + \binom{m}{p}\binom{n}{p-p} = \binom{m+n}{p} \cdots\cdots (1)$.
And, I need to prove that $\sum_{k=0}^{p+1} \binom{m}{k}\binom{n}{p+1-k} = \binom{m+n}{p+1}.$
Consider the left hand side $ \binom{m}{0}\binom{n}{p+1} + \binom{m}{1}\binom{n}{p} + \cdots + \binom{m}{p+1}\binom{n}{p+1-(p+1)}.$
I tried using following binomial identity $\binom{a}{b} = \frac{a-b+1}{b} \binom{a}{b-1}$ for various terms in the sum but it lead to nowhere.
Can anybody help ?