I read the proof for Hadamard's lemma available on Wikipedia but I do not understand the application of the chain rule in the proof.
In particular, $f$ is a smooth function defined on an open star-convex set $U$ of $n$-dimensional Euclidean space and $a\in\mathbb{R}^n$
The proof defines a function $h$ by: $$h(t)=f(a+t(x-a))$$ for a fixed value of $x\in U$ and $0\leq t\leq 1$.
What I don't understand is the application of the chain rule $$h'(t)=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_k}(a+t(x-a))(x_k-a_k).$$
This since I believe that the partial derivatives should not be taken with respect to the $x_k$, but with respect to the argumentes passed to $f$.
Formally, let $u_k(t)=a_k+t(x_k-a_k)$, then the chain rule states that: $$h'(t)=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_k}(a+t(x-a))\frac{d u_k}{d t}=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_k}(a+t(x-a))(x_k-a_k).$$
At least that is what I believe and, by comparison, if we compute the partial derivative as stated in the proof of the lemma I get $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_k}(a+t(x-a))=t\frac{\partial f}{\partial u_k}(a+t(x-a)).$$
Which is not the same thing.